Could the Emperor Maximinus Prescription of the Acts of Pilate Have Been 'Positive' - i.e. to Support a Particular Sect?

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
Secret Alias
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Re: Could the Emperor Maximinus Prescription of the Acts of Pilate Have Been 'Positive' - i.e. to Support a Particular S

Post by Secret Alias »

You even have more useless information than me. I bow down before your omniscience!
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
― Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra, Don Quixote
andrewcriddle
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Joined: Sat Oct 05, 2013 12:36 am

Re: Could the Emperor Maximinus Prescription of the Acts of Pilate Have Been 'Positive' - i.e. to Support a Particular S

Post by andrewcriddle »

I'm wondering whether the reference of Bishop Timothy to the Acts of Pilate is referring to the apocryphal Christian Acts of Pilate. See http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/t ... berts.html
This says at the beginning
In the fifteenth year of the government of Tiberius Caesar, emperor of the Romans, and Herod being king of Galilee, in the nineteenth year of his rule, on the eighth day before the Kalends of April, which is the twenty-fifth of March, in the consulship of Rufus and Rubellio, in the fourth year of the two hundred and second Olympiad, Joseph Caiaphas being high priest of the Jews.
this passage could have been used by those wishing to celebrate Easter on a fixed date of the Julian calendar, which is one of the errors Bishop Timothy is opposing.

Andrew Criddle
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