What is strange, under this hypothesis, is the following fact (1):
someone (not a Judaizer) claimed that the Jews killed the Christ.------> the interpolator (a Judaizer) made Paul a Pharisee to mitigate the accusation against the Jews.
But is there an equivalent regarding the following implication (2):
someone (Paul himself) claimed that the demons killed the Christ ------> the interpolator introduced that the Jews or the Romans killed the Christ.
The point is that nowhere there would be evidence of the implication 2 in Paul, whereas the fact 1 is probably true.
Does the interpolation of 1 Thess 2:14-16 show a connection with the premise in the implication 2?
Probably yes, since in both 1 Corinthians 2:6-8 and in 1 Thessalonicians 2:14-16, the reference is made to the killers of Christ, “as going to be reduced to nothing”, et similia.
Hence yes, the interpolation of 1 Thess 2:14-16 is doing the verse to 1 Cor 2:6-8. There's evidence of the implication 2.
Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.