Was Paul made Pharisee as effect of the accusation of Christicide against the Pharisees?

[Giuseppe]

What is strange, under this hypothesis, is the following fact (1):

someone (not a Judaizer) claimed that the Jews killed the Christ.------> the interpolator (a Judaizer) made Paul a Pharisee to mitigate the accusation against the Jews.

But is there an equivalent regarding the following implication (2):

someone (Paul himself) claimed that the demons killed the Christ ------> the interpolator introduced that the Jews or the Romans killed the Christ.

The point is that nowhere there would be evidence of the implication 2 in Paul, whereas the fact 1 is probably true.

Does the interpolation of 1 Thess 2:14-16 show a connection with the premise in the implication 2?

Probably yes, since in both 1 Corinthians 2:6-8 and in 1 Thessalonicians 2:14-16, the reference is made to the killers of Christ, “as going to be reduced to nothing”, et similia.

Hence yes, the interpolation of 1 Thess 2:14-16 is doing the verse to 1 Cor 2:6-8. There's evidence of the implication 2.