If Jesus had a Birth, then Melkizedek would be greater than him, for the author of Hebrews, since he is priest
forever, "without beginning of days or end of life", while Jesus
only from the time of the his birth.
This, frankly, is impossible.
Not only this. The verse 7:14 goes directly against 7:15-16:
And what we have said is even more clear if another priest like Melchizedek appears, one who has become a priest not on the basis of a regulation as to his ancestry but on the basis of the power of an indestructible life.
Melchizedek has to lack a recorded genealogy
not because the
Judahite Christ will become priest forever, but in virtue of the his (of Mekizedek
and of Jesus)
"indestructible life". In other terms, Jesus becomes a new Melkizedek in virtue of the his feature shared with Melkizedek (the possession of an
"indestructible life"), not in virtue of the his being not from Levi but from Judah.
But if the verse 7:14 is impossible as genuine verse, then why did the interpolator add a provenance from Judah for Jesus? Afterall, there was no doubt that the author of Hebrews was a Jew writing for Jews. There was no doubt that for him, Jesus was a
Jewish thing, and not an alien as the Jesus of Marcion.
There is only a possible answer. The interpolator wanted
christianize the epistle. By referring the Hebrews's Jesus to the
his Jesus.