The greatest conspiracy of the Judaizers is to make me idiot believe that the verse above reiterates merely the essential Jewishness of Jesus:
But in proto-John the meaning of the verse is that Jesus (=the Light) came to the sons of the Light (=the Gnostics), but they were corrupted by the Judaizers and/or Jews (=the sons of the evil demiurge) and as outcome "they (=the Gnostics, not the Jews) didn't receive him".
Now, this interpretation would be limited to proto-John, if proto-John alone was a gnostic gospel.
But it remembers me the point made by Tom Dykstra and Adamczweski in their commentary on Mark, especially about the first meeting with the Pillars:
In the real history, according to Dykstra and Adamczewski, it was Paul who met the Pillars, to find opposition by them. "Mark" replaced Paul with "Jesus" in his fiction.
Hence the interpretation of John 1:11 in proto-John (a marcionite gospel) is strongly indebted to a proto-Mark interpreted as an allegory of Paul as opposed to a real Jesus from Galilee.
In both the cases the hero "came to that which was his own" (=already pauline Christians), ...
...but his own did not receive him:
- The Galatians rejected Paul (real History)
- The Pillars rejected the Markan Jesus who is allegory of Paul (fiction).
This is definitive evidence that Dykstra and Adamczewski are fully right to claim that proto-Mark is 100% midrash from Paul.