Marc Stèphane (alias Weil-Raynal) had already proposed that the crucifixion was romanized when the pauline "Mark" (inventor), writing in Rome, wanted to connect the servile supplicium par excellence with the original mythical crucifixion in outer space of Jesus the suffering Servant of God.
The same Stéphane had argued (see the link above) that the original myth assumed the crucifixion only of the corpse of Christ, as per a Jewish context. The evidence of this was particularly a version of the Ascension of Isaiah, one considered more original by Stéphane.
But what if Stephane was wrong just to consider this Jewish crucifixion of the corpse only of Christ as the more original version of the myth?
What if, just as the crucifixion was "romanized" by the Roman "Mark" writing for Roman Christians, the same crucifixion was "judaized" by Jewish-Christians writing their own gospels for Jews in Judea ?
This is surely expected under the mythicism, just as the legend of a Christ crucified under Janneus 100 years before "our" Christ, as per Toledot Jeschu.
Any country on the earth had the his own euhemerized version of the original "Christ crucified" of Paul and Pillars.
Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.