Ben C. Smith wrote: ↑Thu Mar 12, 2020 2:40 pm
This is the part that I disagree with on the merits. Like I said, all it takes is one. The source materials are not supposed to form some unified textbook from which the author slavishly drew; I mean only that they form part of a broad prophetic vocabulary or imagery set from which all apocalypticists drew.
Furthermore, there are demonstrable uses of earlier material by later material in which only one passage is alluded to, and there are highly dubious uses of earlier material by later material in which multiple passages are potentially alluded to. These two factors: (A) the likelihood of influence and (B) how many sources fed into that influence, are necessarily completely independent. To conflate them produces nothing of use. (By which I mean that, potentially, a detail which scored only 2/8 on your method could easily be the most secure connection, while one scoring 6/8 could actually comprise a less probable connection.)
There was actually something I forgot to mention (I've been scatterbrained all day. One of the mangas I read just had a huge reveal and it's got me all out of whack now), but we can actually see [one of] the author[s] utilize an Old Testament passage directly in
Revelation 4:8. The three
holy, holy, holys is too conspicuous to not have been in the author(s) mind.
I don't know of what worth this would be, but BlueLetterBible has a page where verses from
Revelation are compared to similar passages in the Old Testament:
https://www.blueletterbible.org/study/misc/quotes05.cfm
My issue with comparing the three sets of texts (
Revelation,
Gittin, and the
CSM you quoted) is that I think it is more of a genetic fallacy. Are there parallels with all of the above texts? Absolutely. Are the
CSM influences on Revelation? Probably. But should that take away from any potential value it has when compared to
Gittin 57? That's really the only issue I have.
Suppose that
Revelation 14:14-20 did take from a
CSM, just any of 'em, or all of 'em, doesn't matter. The question I'm asking is, did the author have something specific in mind when he used these sources? Or was it just a need to pad out his text with more dramatic imagery? It's the same issue that the Abomination that causes desolation brings up. Did
Mark and
Matthew have something in mind when they reiterated
Daniel?
That is actually part of my point, as well. Did the author get the winepress from Joel or from Isaiah, for example? In the end it does not really matter, since the whole body of prophetic imagery is the thing.
All of that said, however, like I mentioned, your overall case is better than I had considered. I will let it rest for now and give it more thought.
G'day comrade. I'll work on refining my arguments. I know I'm not the clearest when I talk/write.