I don't know from where you got these objective statistics. Furthermore, even if dominant, that does not mean the meaning is the valid one for 1 Co 2:6.The dominant use of οὐδέ in Paul, according to an objective statistics, is to specify meaning. Hence Paul in 1 Cor 2:7 et seq. is going to point out that a specific wisdom didn't include his hidden wisdom: the archontic wisdom. Therefore, as effect of the specification, the latter is opposed to the human "wisdom of this age".
Your so-called archontic wisdom and the wisdom of this age do not include God's hidden wisdom. That does not make your so-called archontic wisdom and the wisdom of this age different from each other.
Enough about οὐδέ. The topic has already been exhausted by our past debate and the input of Ben.
Well, this gospel apologetics is mine, not from others, and well explained, if you read my webpage on the disturbance in the temple, showing that "Mark" played down that disturbance by making it of no consequence, which is really impossible for me to swallow. So why "Mark" would mention that disturbance? because that was heard from trusted disciple(s) and "Mark" felt obligated to mention it in order to bring some credibility to his gospel.so you appeal to late Gospel apologetics to make your point. Well to know.Bernard Muller wrote: ↑Tue Nov 10, 2020 12:55 pm
What about chief priests being included in the archontes of 1 Co 2:6&8.
I cannot used Paul to make my point here.
Same tactics for "king of the Jews", which is rather disturbing for the intended Gentile audience of his gospel. See http://historical-jesus.info/29.html
Cordially, Bernard