SACT: Matthew wrote Luke to support his own story

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Ben C. Smith
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Re: SACT: Matthew wrote Luke to support his own story

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Bernard Muller wrote: Thu Oct 22, 2020 12:10 pm to mlinssen and Ben and Greek experts,
I can't blaim you for reading the wrong translations, there hardly are any others

Thomas is joking about the dumb sabbath which he naturally detests:

ⲧⲉⲧⲛ̄ ⲧⲙ̄ ⲉⲓⲣⲉ ⲙ̄ ⲡ ⲥⲁⲙⲃⲁⲧⲟⲛ ⲛ̄ ⲥⲁⲃ`ⲃⲁⲧⲟⲛ
you(PL) …not… make-be of the Sabbath the(PL) sABBAth

Do you see the difference between the two occurrences of the same word?
Do you also see the apostrophe? In the second word?

AB'BA

Make of the Sabbath Father's Days. Or else... You won't see the Father
Strange translation. I would like to know about Ben's take about it (or/and from other Greek experts on this forum).

Cordially, Bernard
That is the Coptic.

The Greek is:

Thomas 27.1-2 (papyrus Oxyrhynchus 1, verso, lines 4b-11a): 1 Λέγει Ἰ(ησοῦ)ς· ἐὰν μὴ νηστεύσηται τὸν κόσμον, οὐ μὴ εὕρηται τὴν βασιλείαν τοῦ θ(εο)ῦ· 2 καὶ ἐὰν μὴ σαββατίσητε τὸ σάββατον οὐκ ὄψεσθε τὸ<ν> π(ατέ)ρα. / [Gathercole:] 1 Jesus says, “Unless you fast with respect to the world, you will not find the kingdom of God. 2 And unless you observe the Sabbath, you will not see the Father.”

The Greek has a cognate accusative (which means that the direct object is from the same root as the main verb): σαββατίσητε τὸ σάββατον. This is not particularly unusual. English does the same thing sometimes (sing a song, tell a tale, do a deed).

The verb, σαββατίζω, means to keep the Sabbath. The noun, σάββατον, means the Sabbath (or, by extension, a week). The cognate accusative construction appears in the LXX:

Leviticus 23.32: 32 “It is to be a sabbath of complete rest to you, and you shall humble your souls; on the ninth of the month at evening, from evening until evening you shall keep your sabbaths [LXX σαββατιεῖτε τὰ σάββατα ὑμῶν].”

Gathercole's translation is quite literal. There is nothing in the Greek grammar itself to suggest one way or another whether keeping the Sabbath is meant literally or not.

Gathercole has an opinion:

Simon Gathercole, The Gospel of Thomas, pages 325-326:

Different solutions have been proposed for the interpretation of this saying. (1) Baarda has considered GTh 27 as best understood in a Gnostic framework, with ‘Sabbath’ being a term for the Gnostic demiurge or his creation, so that the saying refers to the rejection of the demiurge (27.1) and the material world (27.2): the logion is about ‘the total denial of present reality of the Cosmos and its Creator to enable the finding of the true reality of the kingdom and the Father’. A Gnostic conception is certainly not necessary, however, and does not comport with the sense of Thomas elsewhere. (2) By contrast, DeConick sees a traditional Jewish practice here, which connected celibacy and Sabbath observance. This proposal is weakened by the fact that Thomas is elsewhere so critical of Jewish practices (e.g. GTh 14, 52–53...). The best explanation is probably that adopted by the majority of commentators, namely (3) that both Sabbath and fasting have become metaphors for something else.

First, ‘fasting’ and ‘Sabbath observance’ are placed here in parallel as two soteriological conditions. Baarda and King rightly aver there must be some degree of synonymous parallelism here, even if not absolute: ‘fasting’ and ‘sabbatising’ are closely related ideas: namely, abstaining from food and from work respectively. The same is true of the results in the apodoses: ‘The parallelism of structure identifies fasting with observing the Sabbath and identifies finding the kingdom with seeing the father.’

Secondly, there is a reinterpretation of fasting and Sabbath observance, indeed, one might even call this a radicalising extension of them: the true disciple is not merely to fast from certain foods, but from the whole world, and is not to rest from labour on the Sabbath, but from worldly concerns at all times. A total renunciation of anything associated with evil is enjoined. The Epistle of Ptolemy to Flora also juxtaposes reference to fasting and Sabbath, after a similar explanation of circumcision: ‘He wanted us to be circumcised, not in regard to our physical foreskin but in regard to our spiritual heart; to keep the Sabbath, for he wishes us to be idle in regard to evil works; to fast, not in physical fasting but in spiritual, in which there is abstinence from everything evil.’ (Ptolemy, in Epiphanius, Pan. 33.5.11–13.)

Here, Sabbath observance and fasting are metaphors for total rejection of anything unholy. (We will encounter in GTh 53 an interpretation of circumcision similar to that of Ptolemy here.) This parallel adds weight to the probability that in GTh 27, the true disciple is to practice a life of extreme abstinence from evil, and is to avoid the mechanisms of worldly interaction.

The radicalising is seen further in that these are not merely practices for an elite, but soteriological conditions, as is evident from the apodoses in both parts of the saying (‘unless... you will not find the kingdom...; unless... you will not see the Father’).

This saying has featured in discussions of both Thomas’s original language, and its milieu. Several scholars have commented that the phrase ‘fast to the world’ suggests a Syriac original, on the grounds that it woodenly translates the Syriac phrase sʾm lʿlmʾ; this view is not without its difficulties, however. Thomas here clearly reflects a fairly widespread second-century tendency to interpret elements of Jewish law metaphorically. A final possibility (though only that), is that the close connection between fasting and Sabbath observance here may reflect a distance from Judaism: as Schäfer notes, ‘The view of the Sabbath as a fast-day seems to have been widespread among Greek and Latin authors.’

Obviously opinions differ on virtually everything to do with Thomas. I like to consult Peter Kirby's handy summary of views, as well, for such matters: http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/t ... mas27.html.

But, to be clear, while I have no firm opinion on the interpretation of this saying, the surface meaning of the Greek is not difficult. The author could have meant something symbolic by it, and could even have chosen to use a cognate accusative for some reason in that direction (which some scholars seem to assume he did), but the Greek by itself does not necessitate such a conclusion. I cannot speak to the Coptic.
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Re: SACT: Matthew wrote Luke to support his own story

Post by mlinssen »

Bernard, and anyone else, can check the Coptic for themselves now, extremely easily, with my translation in hand

All it takes is just a few clicks, and some understanding of language

https://www.academia.edu/42110001/Inter ... ranslation

Yet the apostrophe should be clear to all, as is the different spelling of both words
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Re: SACT: Matthew wrote Luke to support his own story

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mlinssen wrote: Thu Oct 22, 2020 9:53 pm Bernard, and anyone else, can check the Coptic for themselves now, extremely easily, with my translation in hand

All it takes is just a few clicks, and some understanding of language

https://www.academia.edu/42110001/Inter ... ranslation

Yet the apostrophe should be clear to all, as is the different spelling of both words
Both instances of "Sabbath," with and without the apostrophe, lead to the same page from your interlinear file. What, then, is the function of the apostrophe in Coptic? What does it do linguistically?
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Re: SACT: Matthew wrote Luke to support his own story

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Ben C. Smith wrote: Thu Oct 22, 2020 10:11 pm
mlinssen wrote: Thu Oct 22, 2020 9:53 pm Bernard, and anyone else, can check the Coptic for themselves now, extremely easily, with my translation in hand

All it takes is just a few clicks, and some understanding of language

https://www.academia.edu/42110001/Inter ... ranslation

Yet the apostrophe should be clear to all, as is the different spelling of both words
Both instances of "Sabbath," with and without the apostrophe, lead to the same page from your interlinear file. What, then, is the function of the apostrophe in Coptic? What does it do linguistically?
I may have found the answer to my question (composite image from pages 190-191):

Bentley Layton on Coptic Apostrophes.png
Bentley Layton on Coptic Apostrophes.png (376.49 KiB) Viewed 4716 times

Two usages: (A) to divide double consonants and (B) as an optional morpheme boundary.
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Re: SACT: Matthew wrote Luke to support his own story

Post by mlinssen »

Ben C. Smith wrote: Thu Oct 22, 2020 10:11 pm
mlinssen wrote: Thu Oct 22, 2020 9:53 pm Bernard, and anyone else, can check the Coptic for themselves now, extremely easily, with my translation in hand

All it takes is just a few clicks, and some understanding of language

https://www.academia.edu/42110001/Inter ... ranslation

Yet the apostrophe should be clear to all, as is the different spelling of both words
Both instances of "Sabbath," with and without the apostrophe, lead to the same page from your interlinear file. What, then, is the function of the apostrophe in Coptic? What does it do linguistically?
Every single link leads to one unique single word Ben. Yes, those two words are on the same page in Kellia, where there are dozens of variants for the word Sabbath. I see you have found the use for the apostrophe, and this particular text that Layton

I haven't come around to the nitty-gritty here, but let me point you to GRAMMATEIS (logion 33) and Johannes, ⲃⲣ̄ⲣⲉ,
ⲥⲃ̅ⲃⲉ: I have no idea when and where this should apply, and I most certainly am not an expert in Coptic. I know the basis, have turned Thomas into a completely transparent and traceable translation for all, and pretty much expect it to become a group effort now, now that it can.
Meanwhile, I'll continue unravelling the text in line with my metamorphosis model and general assertions about Thomas' intentions

ⲙⲁⲑⲑⲁⲓⲟⲥ has a quote too, but that's also a joke, I think. The proverbial Disciple...

Thomas is a devious devil, a true master of words, letters, and "points and commas". Even his use of different dialects has a purpose, and it is all so very, very exciting
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Re: SACT: Matthew wrote Luke to support his own story

Post by mlinssen »

By the way, I advice reading up on orthography within the precise context: the Nag Hammadi codex II

https://books.google.nl/books?id=DpV2JW ... &q&f=false

It says largely the same, but still. Why not go straight to the point :)
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Re: SACT: Matthew wrote Luke to support his own story

Post by mlinssen »

Ben C. Smith wrote: Thu Oct 22, 2020 10:11 pm
mlinssen wrote: Thu Oct 22, 2020 9:53 pm Bernard, and anyone else, can check the Coptic for themselves now, extremely easily, with my translation in hand

All it takes is just a few clicks, and some understanding of language

https://www.academia.edu/42110001/Inter ... ranslation

Yet the apostrophe should be clear to all, as is the different spelling of both words
Both instances of "Sabbath," with and without the apostrophe, lead to the same page from your interlinear file. What, then, is the function of the apostrophe in Coptic? What does it do linguistically?
I forgot, but did you notice the first word being SAMBATON, and the second being SABBATON?
And I didn't stress it in the later post but the apostrophe is not present in the word GRAMMATEIS and the others. It is not consistently used as double consonant marker

So the issue is that Thomas uses two different versions of the same word in the same sentence, even the same phrase - and there is an apostrophe in the second one

Secondly, I think he also implies a pun with the orignal mening of the Hebrew; to cease / stop (work). Sabbathise the Sabbath - cease the habit of Sabbath, much as he exhorts to not fast, pray or give alms.
It would be pretty odd anyway to reject those three habits and then applaud the custom of another one, without further ado

It's a joke. Or double entendre if you like. Plenty of those too
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Re: SACT: Matthew wrote Luke to support his own story

Post by mlinssen »

Bernard Muller wrote: Thu Oct 22, 2020 12:10 pm to mlinssen and Ben and Greek experts,
Strange translation. I would like to know about Ben's take about it (or/and from other Greek experts on this forum).

Cordially, Bernard
So now you have that, what's your verdict Bernard?

Still "strange translation"?
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Re: SACT: Matthew wrote Luke to support his own story

Post by Ben C. Smith »

mlinssen wrote: Fri Oct 23, 2020 5:24 pmI forgot, but did you notice the first word being SAMBATON, and the second being SABBATON?
Yes. I am used to spelling variants in manuscripts. There are Greek NT manuscripts which have both γίνομαι and its variant γείνομαι in the same verse, for example, or the infinitive ending -σθε in the same verse as the infinitive ending -σθαι.
And I didn't stress it in the later post but the apostrophe is not present in the word GRAMMATEIS and the others. It is not consistently used as double consonant marker
Diacritical marks are often employed inconsistently in ancient manuscripts.

ETA:
mlinssen wrote: Fri Oct 23, 2020 5:24 pmSecondly, I think he also implies a pun with the orignal mening of the Hebrew; to cease / stop (work). Sabbathise the Sabbath - cease the habit of Sabbath, much as he exhorts to not fast, pray or give alms.
Whether such a pun works in the Coptic I cannot say. But that is not how the cognate accusative works in Greek. Leviticus 23.32: σαββατιεῖτε τὰ σάββατα ὑμῶν = "keep your Sabbaths." Justin Martyr, Dialogue 12.3: καὶ σεσαββάτικε τὰ τρυφερὰ καὶ ἀληθινὰ σάββατα τοῦ θεοῦ = "and has kept the sweet and true Sabbaths of God." Thomas 27.2: σαββατίσητε τὸ σάββατον = "keep the Sabbath." Origen, Commentary on Matthew 12.36: καινὸν σαββατιεῖ σάββατον = "keep a new Sabbath."
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Re: SACT: Matthew wrote Luke to support his own story

Post by mlinssen »

Ben C. Smith wrote: Fri Oct 23, 2020 5:43 pm
Whether such a pun works in the Coptic I cannot say. But that is not how the cognate accusative works in Greek. Leviticus 23.32: σαββατιεῖτε τὰ σάββατα ὑμῶν = "keep your Sabbaths." Justin Martyr, Dialogue 12.3: καὶ σεσαββάτικε τὰ τρυφερὰ καὶ ἀληθινὰ σάββατα τοῦ θεοῦ = "and has kept the sweet and true Sabbaths of God." Thomas 27.2: σαββατίσητε τὸ σάββατον = "keep the Sabbath." Origen, Commentary on Matthew 12.36: καινὸν σαββατιεῖ σάββατον = "keep a new Sabbath."
0) the Hebrew Leviticus says something quite differently: https://biblehub.com/text/leviticus/23-32.htm. My Hebrew is non existent so unfortunately I can't verify

1) the cognate accusative merely enables transitive use of an intransitive verb by introducing an object, it says nothing about semantics. It is evident that our biblical buddies limit themselves to a very narrow scope, I'd think.
I can say make the Ben (into) Bens and that wouldn't imply any specific meaning such as you cite above

2) the Coptic doesn't have a verb Sabbathise, it says "make the Sabbath Sabbaths", singular and plural. Use my translation for an easy single-click entry into the dictionary

ⲉⲓⲣⲉ ⲙ̄ ⲡ ⲥⲁⲙⲃⲁⲧⲟⲛ ⲛ̄ ⲥⲁⲃ`ⲃⲁⲧⲟⲛ

The first M is an N due to vowel change as it precedes an N.
ⲉⲓⲣⲉ (ⲛ-) is the verb do on behalf of, make into https://coptic-dictionary.org/entry.cgi?tla=C953 but I have chosen to leave the two words separate, as that largely fits the same use.
ⲡ- is the male definite article singular https://coptic-dictionary.org/entry.cgi?tla=C2783.
ⲛ- is the definite article plural https://coptic-dictionary.org/entry.cgi?tla=C2352
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