Perhaps you'd just like the examples from this thread.
Evidence-based criticism:
theomise wrote:I haven't read this whole discussion yet, but would you regard early-dated papyri of Irenaeus' Adversus Haereses as evidence against your thesis?
Evidence dismissed:
However in defence of these papyri not falsifying the hypothesis it might be argued that the margin for a later dating of these two papyri could easily be extended to c.325 CE without too many complaints from the palaeographers. The first has an upper estimate of 250 CE, the second an upper estimate of 324 CE. The hypothesis requires a date of around 325 CE. Thanks for your question.
Evidence-based criticism:
PhilospherJay wrote:Let us look at the beginning of your argument regarding the "Gospel of Peter", the first of over 100 works you wish to redate. if you can make a convincing case for this one, then we may examine the second text. You write, "Eusebius cites Origen, Justin Martyr and Serapion as mentioning this text although in the case of Justin, MR James comments that “the evidence is not demonstrative”. Eusebius has an unknown Serapion report that he walked into a Gnostic library and “borrowed” a copy of this text."
The three references in Eusebius is probably strong enough to consider that the Gospel Of Peter was a Second Century work. The fact that M.R. James commented that the evidence for a single reference "is not demonstrative," does not mean that the three references are not demonstrative. The "Unknown Serapion" Serapion is almost certainly the Patriarch of Antioch. Eusebius refers to him three different times also. According to Wikipedia, ["Serapion" - viewed July 30, 2014] "Eusebius quotes (vi.12.2) from a pamphlet Serapion wrote concerning the Docetic Gospel of Peter, in which Serapion presents an argument to the Christian community of Rhossus in Syria against this gospel and condemns it." Also it says, "Eusebius also alludes to a number of personal letters Serapion wrote to Pontius, Caricus, and others about this Gospel of Peter." Thus Eusebius was aware of at least four different sources which he considered came from the Second Century that mentions the Gospel of Peter.
Besides this, we have Origen in his "Commentary on Matthew" saying "But some say, basing it on a tradition in the Gospel according to Peter, as it is entitled, or “The Book of James, that the brethren of Jesus were sons of Joseph by a former wife." Thus, beside Eusebius, we have a work by Origen, entirely independent of Eusebius vouching for the early existence of the Gospel of Peter.
Eusebius describes a docetist Gospel of Peter. The archaeological evidence also supports the existence of a docetist Gospel of Peter.
Under the scenario proposed, of a post Nicea Gospel of Peter, we have to assume that Origen made up a reference to the Gospel of Peter and Eusebius made up four fake references. Then we have to suppose that people later made up this Gospel of Peter document that Origen and Eusebius claim to know about.
It seems so much simpler and more reasonable to assume that some dosectic version of the Gospel of Peter, such as the one we now have was written around 150 C.E. at around the same time as the other gospels and developed popularity along with them. In simplifying the orthodox canon in the Fourth century, Constantine and his advisers (including Eusebius) decided to attack the text as heretical. To paraphrase Irenaeus, as there were only four emperors when Constantine became Emperor. there could only be four gospels, and the Gospel of Peter, despite it being exactly equal to the other four gospels in nonsense, got arbitrarily cut out of the canon.
Evidence dismissed:
The basic assumption is that the orthodox heresiologists had the means, motive and opportunity to falsely represent the history of the heretics - their ideological enemies. The means was to fake references in the books of Origen and Eusebius so that posterity would infer that the battle between orthodoxy and heresy had been running for many centuries prior to the arrival of orthodoxy and the widespread publication of the canonical Greek Bibles.
Evidence-based criticism:
PhilosopherJay wrote:I tend to think that this is even more problematical than claiming that the New Testament writings were created in the 4th Century. It makes some logical sense that Constantine's Gang would want to show their works were old, if they had just produced them. It doesn't make sense for them to portray their opponent's works as old, if, in fact, they too were brand new. If they were a reaction to the new New Testament, why not just say so and dismiss them as a new bunch of crazy copycats? Why give them the authority of being 150 to 200 years old.
One could imagine it being done in some bizarre case if it was just one or two texts, but we are talking about hundreds here. Why make almost all of them old instead of proclaiming the truth that they are new and valueless works?
I really cannot think of any parallel case like this in history. The closest thing that I can find is that during the Cold War, the Capitalist propaganda institutions would often portray the new communist governments as throwbacks to medieval times. They would often portray the Soviet Union as a continuation of Czarist institutions instead of a revolt against them. Even here, they never misdated Communist works to show them as older than they were.
Evidence dismissed (bizarrely):
The idea is that there was a massive controversy as a reaction to the appearance of the "Holy Bible" that the victors did not want to give any publicity to. They wanted to get rid of the political controversy because it was inconvenient for posterity. I don't think we can separate out the "Arian controversy" from this hypothetical post 325 CE literary reaction - and that Arius of Alexandria may have been one of the earliest Gnostic authors.
The victors wanted to present a harmonious acceptance of the Bible by the Roman Empire (325-381 CE), where suddenly everyone became Christian by the time of Theodosius. So they tried to bury the controversy. What controversy over the Bible? What books? What heretics? The bible is true etc ...
Evidence-based criticism:
PhilosopherJay wrote:We also have to consider the limited power of Constantine to reshape the past. We should remember that while he gave state funding to Christian institutions, he did allow freedom of religion. It was not until Theodosius in 380 that it became the mandatory official religion of Rome. No doubt the 90% of Romans who were still polytheists were upset that their new Emperor was a trio-theist with a new and bizarre cult, but other emperors had also preached bizarre cults and they were tolerated. For example Elagabalus (218-222)
Evidence dismissed (well, we can't prove there wasn't a lot more going on than was recorded - somehow evidence on Constantine is "surprisingly sparse" [compared to which other emperor? not most of them]):
Constantine's freedom of religion included the destruction of ancient and highly revered temples, book burning, death and torture to his opponents.
By the time of Theodosius it was the end game. What actually happened during Constantine's rule is debatable, because the evidence is surprisingly sparse.
Evidence-based criticism:
PhilosopherJay wrote:The attitude of most Romans of Constantine's day seems to be that Christianity was another crazy passing fanatical fad of another crazy Emperor. There may have been a need to prove that orthodox Christianity was old and ancient to make it more acceptable to the public, but no need to prove that gnostic teachings were.
Evidence dismissed (with unspecified "allowance" of interpolations in the very text used elsewhere by LC as evidence):
There may not have been such a need in the rule of Constantine, but I am allowing "Eusebius" to have been interpolated by his preservers in the later 4th and 5th and subsequent centuries.
Ironic acknowledgement that the whole case up to that point seemed to involve dismissing evidence against (page 4):
So far in this thread I have presented the citations of the literary evidence AGAINST the argument of the OP. That is I have tediously listed the evidence which people hold up as being sufficient to be comfortable with the assumption and hypothesis that at least some of the gnostic literature was authored before the bible was first widely and politically published for all to read in the Roman Empire. This evidence largely consists of a reliance that what the heresiologists wrote about the heretics was history and not pseudo-history.
Evidence-based criticism:
Peter Kirby wrote:We can find jibes at Gnosticism even in the New Testament (1 Tim 6:20 if you accept it, 1 John as well, also the resurrection scenes of the Gospels where they confirm that Jesus has a body).
If this analysis is accepted, then Gnosticism is not purely a reaction to the New Testament (or what you are calling Constantine's Bible).
Evidence dismissed (more interpolations, no attempt to find out whether the claim used to dismiss the evidence might be true or not):
Gnostic content in the NT may have been introduced between 325 CE and closure of the canon in later 4th century.
Evidence dismissed again (no intervening reply):
The OP deals with the "Gnostic literature" which I have listed.
The gnostic literature may be typified by the non canonical gospels and acts, and it is the authors of these books who are being here called "gnostics".
Evidence dismissed again (no reply intervening once again... and now contradicting several other remarks on the hypothesis):
Thanks for your opinion but the OP is not about "Gnosticism" it is about the "Gnostic literature"
Evidence-based criticism:
Dating the Gnostic literature after 325 CE also means dating all the anti-Gnostic literature after 325 CE.
I could also of course mention the texts dated after the New Testament but before 325 CE, which would then have to be considered pseudonymous and assigned another supposed historical context.
Evidence dismissed (forgeries against non-existent second century heretics, to hide the existence of the real fourth-century pagan parody-makers):
The position being argued here is that this supposed pre-Nicaean anti-gnostic literature of Irenaeus and Hippolytus represents interpolation and forgeries into the "Church History" made after, perhaps well after, Nicaea and the widespread publication of the NT Bible. The aim of the forgery was not just "to blacken the names of their opponents" but to erase the names and memory of their opponents who had caused the controversy by writing (post-Nicaean) Gnostic literature.
Criticism:
perseusomega9 wrote:Go ahead and show that each piece of literature is indeed post Eusebius instead of claiming they are and making us show otherwise.
Criticism dismissed:
An hypothesis does not require any proof.
Criticism:
Peter Kirby wrote:Pete you like to pretend that you are being objective re: your starting point for investigation.
It might even be an interesting exercise to start from this time period and work backwards on a more sure footing, discarding what doesn't come up with actual evidence.
But the truth is that you have a lot invested in the alternative hypotheses you mention and that you seem incapable of evaluating them in a disinterested manner.
This becomes evident whenever you come across any evidence that could depose your initial hypothesis - you quickly go to work undermining it if it contradicts it... but, on the other hand, you don't quickly go to work undermining evidence that doesn't contradict your initial hypothesis. As long as it shows something to be 326 CE possibly and not 324 CE (since you've got this fascination with this 325 date in relation to certain documents) then you don't really care. Hence the special treatment bit.
While you might be able to claim that your hypothesis is one of many physically possible options for interpreting the historical evidence, you cannot pretend that your fascination with this one alternative out of many alternatives, all similarly (un)likely, is anything other than your own favorite hobby horse (which phrase, though frequently applied and no doubt tiresome to you, is chosen because it fits).
Criticism dismissed:
There is the matter of Popperian falsifiability. There is no requirement that an hypothesis have direct evidence or proof, since it is provisionally accepted as true for the purpose of further research. However a hypothesis cannot long be entertained if there is hard evidence against the truth of the hypothesis which cannot otherwise be explained by a further re-evaluation of that evidence.
I do understand the principles of falsifiability.
Whoever taught you about "falsifiability" forgot the part that extremely
ad hoc hypotheses, which add numerous provisos to allow the "hypothesis" to conform to the data (forgeries and interpolations and the incorrectness of paleographical dating of manuscripts being some of the
ad hoc riders that have been added to the mid-fourth century noncanonical text hypothesis, which implies none of all that), belong to the realm of things you shouldn't treat as your hypothesis that is "accepted as true for the purpose of further research," if you're being completely critical and honest about all of it.
In the realm of hypothesis-formation, this is sometimes called "overfitting," and it will always tend to be a problem when the data being used to
arrive at a hypothesis (and formulate its predictions) are the same data being used to
test a hypothesis and see if the predictions hold true (and here, that's clearly the case). Any sufficiently complex hypothesis, trained against the data being used to test the hypothesis, will not be falsified. It's a trivial exercise, like plotting an N-degree polynomial curve through N+1 points.
Evidence-based criticism:
Stephan Huller wrote:In other words, it isn't that we happen to have a manuscript which could have been compiled at any time. We know the Enneads was established in its current form by Plotinus. So we have (a) an original manuscript which had one ordering and then we have (b) Porphyry's explicit testimony that "Against Those That Affirm The Creator of the Kosmos and The Kosmos Itself to be Evil" existed in one place in Plotinus's original manuscript and then he put it ninth in the second book of the six volume Enneads. The point is clearly that we have in fact two attestations to Plotinus's original testimony - Plotinus's and Porphyry's. Now I don't know (nor do I care) how you deal with Porphyry's anti-Christian testimony. But it certainly testifies to the existence of Christians before Nicaea. I am equally certain that you will go to great lengths to disprove this universally acknowledged testimony but no one will be convinced by it except for your lap dog Tanya or whatever name he/she/it goes by now.
Evidence dismissed:
The original term gnostic is often derived from Plato and we can expect Plotinus to follow Plato.
One question is whether the chapter heading is referring to the "supposed Christian Gnostic authors" or to what the Platonists refer to as "gnostics".
You'd have to be a devout blinkered Christian to think the former.
Evidence-based criticism:
MrMacSon wrote:Patristic Polemical Works Against the Gnostics
Irenaeus of Lyon: (c. 140 – c. 202 AD)
Irenaeus (died c. 202) was Bishop of Lugdunum in Gaul, then a part of the Roman Empire (and now Lyons, France). His writings were formative in the early development of Christian theology. Irenaeus' best-known book is Adversus Haereses ("The Destruction and Overthrow of Falsely So-called Knowledge," c. 180). It is a detailed attack on Gnosticism and especially on the theology of the leading Gnostic Christian of his age, Valentinus. He thus unwittingly provided one of the best historical sources on Valentinian tradition.
http://gnosis.org/library/polem.htm
Evidence dismissed:
Thanks Mac but read the OP. I am testing out the hypothesis that the orthodox Christians of the 4th and later centuries falsely inserted references to the appearances and mentions of various heretical books into their own "Church History".
Page 11, all evidence to this point dismissed:
I have not yet received any comments related to the evidentiary basis of the mainstream chronology for the (christian) gnostic literature prior to the 4th century.
Criticism:
Your exclusion of the references to these texts on other sources is completely arbitrary.
Dismissed:
No it is most certainly not arbitrary. One of the key criteria of the historical method is that any given source may be forged or corrupt. I am totally within the limits of the historical method to treat as corrupt the literary sources preserved by one specific organisation.
Evidence-based criticism:
Peter Kirby wrote:Papyri:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oxyrhynchus_Papyri
http://www.areopage.net/PDF/PapyriFromT ... nEgypt.pdf
188 P.Oxy. 3.405 II/III Oxyrhynchus Irenaeus, Adversus Haereses 3.9, 2-3
213 P.Oxy. 41.2949 II/III Oxyrhynchus Gospel of Peter
214 P.Oxy. 4.654 III Oxyrhynchus Gospel of Thomas, Prologue and logoi 1-7
215 P.Oxy. 50.3525 III Oxyrhynchus Gospel of Mary
217 P.Oxy. 4.655 beg. III Oxyrhynchus Gospel of Thomas, logoi 24, 36-39
224 P.Ryl. 3.463 beg. III Oxyrhynchus Gospel of Mary
225 P.Oxy. 1.1 early III Oxyrhynchus Gospel of Thomas, logoi 26-33, 77a
226 P.Schøyen 1.21 III unknown Acts of Paul and Thecla
Let me guess. All the dates on the latter are wrong, and the identifications of the content of the inscriptions are insecure.
Oh, and yes, all the references to the Gnostics in the ante-Nicene literature were planted there by their enemies. Because that totally makes sense.
DISMISSSED:
Leucius Charinus wrote:According to "The Limits of Palaeographic Dating of Literary Papyri: Date/Provenance P.Bodmer II (P66): Brent Nongbri [2014]" an upper bound to all these dates should include the 4th century.
Is that a fact? The abstract (
article here):
Palaeographic estimates of the date of P.Bodmer II the well-preserved Greek papyrus codex of the Gospel of John have ranged from the early second century to the first half of the third century. There are however equally convincing palaeographic parallels among papyri securely dated to as late as the fourth century. This article surveys the palaeographic evidence and argues that the range of possible dates assigned to P.Bodmer II on the basis of pa laeography needs to be broadened to include the fourth century. Furthermore a serious consideration of a date at the later end of that broadened spectrum of palaeographic possibilities helps to explain both the place of P.Bodmer lI in relation to other Bodmer papyri and several aspects of the codicology of P.Bodmer II.
Even if this writer, Brent Nongbri, were somehow right or reliable in all his conclusions or in these particular ones, I have not found where he or anyone else makes the sweeping claim attributed to him by LC, who needs
every single one of the papyri listed above to be dated to the mid-fourth century or later.
What's the point of LC asking for evidence, when we already know that it will be dismissed?
"... almost every critical biblical position was earlier advanced by skeptics." - Raymond Brown