Thomas logion 79. Greek loanwords are capitalised (and the translation can be found at the usual place, https://www.academia.edu/42110001)
This is a really lovely one that gets shared only between Thomas, Marcion and Luke. Or does it?
Yes, that is 100% verbatim indeed. But Luke has the real stuff:
Marcion also has that:
27 It came to pass, as he said these things, a certain woman out of the multitude lifted up her voice, and said to him, “Blessed is the womb that bore you, and the breasts which nursed you!” 28 But he said, “On the contrary, blessed are those who hear the word of God, and do it.”
27 Ἐγένετο δὲ ἐν τῷ λέγειν αὐτὸν ταῦτα ἐπάρασά τις φωνὴν γυνὴ ἐκ τοῦ ὄχλου εἶπεν αὐτῷ Μακαρία ἡ κοιλία ἡ βαστάσασά σε καὶ μαστοὶ οὓς ἐθήλασας. 28 αὐτὸς δὲ εἶπεν Μενοῦν μακάριοι οἱ ἀκούοντες τὸν λόγον τοῦ Θεοῦ καὶ ποιοῦντες
This one is slightly difficult because the copies of Mark and Matthew are negations of Thomas's last: instead of blessings to those who don't, they turn it into woes to those who do.
Again, Thomas has a full story here, and turns things upside down / looks at an issue from both sides. He takes a religious-ish and lame comment and counters it, and then reverts it
It is indisputable that Luke and Thomas are in agreement here, that is to say all of Luke is in Thomas.
The similarity between Mark/ Matthew and the last sentence of Thomas is striking, and alas the Coptic doesn't have Greek loanwords so there is nothing verbatim to point to; the order of belly and breast is fairly natural so that is of no use either
But, fortunately, Luke helps out:
Now, isn't that interesting?! But that ain't all
Luke chapter 21 is also perfectly verbatim with Mark and Matthew.
But what about his 23? That is in perfect agreement with Thomas's last sentence - it has all of it (and Luke inserts the phrase about the barren).
It is unclear whether Marcion has or doesn't have that, and the same goes for Luke's 21
Assuming that Thomas copied from the canonicals instead of vice versa, we have two choices: either he combined Luke 11:27-28 with Luke 23:29, or he "un-negated" Mark 13:17 or Matthew 24:19 to serve that purpose
But isn't it marvelous how Luke uses the γαστρὶ from Mark (or Matthew, if you believe that order) when he copies that verse, while he reverts to the κοιλία "of Marcion" when he has the very last sentence of Thomas
What say you?
Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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