You can do the math yourself. The basic structure as evinced in English is [relation] of [name], eg "the mother of Mary" or "the king of Siam". These will be in the vast preponderance in Greek syntax, "the of-Mary mother" and "the of-Siam king". (One notable exception is "son of Bill", as the Greek rarely uses "son", using just the genitive, so "Phil the son of Bill" becomes "Phil of-Bill", though irregularly some now is inserted with irregular results.) Pick a book of AJ and see how long it takes to find an exception.MattMorales wrote:You may be on to something with the syntax, but I'd have to see a full treatment of the material in order to draw any conclusions.spin wrote:The syntax is not wrong per se. I had to deal with the genitive qualifiers in a slightly different context (regarding Paul's use of "brother") and applied the issue to Josephus to see how he dealt with it in the context of familial relations. That's how I know it isn't reflective.
This was not a forgery, but a case of creeping marginalia. I get pissed off when people reduce the options to the good vs bad taxonomy. Don't be so simplistic. You are not in a trench and this isn't WWI, so get rid of your mythicist refrain. Much of the scribal variation we see is due to error, copying error and misunderstanding. Creeping marginalia is when a scribe assumes a marginal note is an omission and reinserts it. My comment involves the effects of the preservers being interested parties. That can measure out in intention to manipulate, but it needn't.MattMorales wrote:To say that because we have examples of forgery that every single bit of Christian writing or reference to Jesus is lie after lie sounds like those who believe conspiracy theories about the U.S. government due to its history of dishonesty. We should have a healthy skepticism, but take things case by case. In the case of this mundane reference, there is nothing that raises a red flag except to those already leaning towards mythicism.spin wrote:One cannot wave their hands and say that we must assume that plaintiff is innocent until proven guilty here. We have many examples of christian scribes interfering with texts: everyone agrees that christian hands have been on the TF for example. When dealing with christian preserved non-christian sources, the preservers are an interested party, so we have to hold any reference to christianity as suspect.
A quick look at that unanimous tradition: Codex Regius Parisinus c14, Codex Oxoniensis c15, Codex Marcianus c13, Codex V'indobonensis II c12, Codex Parisinus c11, Codex Laurentianus c14. Cassiodotus had a translation made in 5th/6th c. Excerpts in sources no earlier than c10. Unanimity from this stuff is unhelpful.
I'm saying that Eusebius (EH 2.23.20) unlike today's pundits saw no direct relationship between what Origen "cited" from Josephus and AJ 20.200, which Eusebius cited immediately after the Origen passage. And Eusebius cited Origen as Josephus! For him they were separate texts.MattMorales wrote:I'm still not clear on what it is that can be gained from Eusebius. Are you saying that he didn't believe Origen had Josephus as a source? Could you provide the passage for reference?spin wrote:Yet Origen cites nothing from AJ, so you have to take him on trust, despite the fact he doesn't know what's in AJ 20.200. The best people can do is claim that he must be citing "James the brother of Jesus called christ", but AJ 20.200 doesn't say that: it says "the brother of Jesus called christ whose name (was) James".
Eusebius is important as he shows how people understood the source texts within 50 years of Origen and that understanding being near contemporary does have the possibility of reflecting Origen.
No, we are splitting hairs over the scholarly fine tuning of what they believe Origen used from AJ 20.200. Yes, it is obvious that Origen was working from memory. The difference here is that I argue that he confused his source in doing so, ie confused Hegesippus and Josephus, names which were confused in antiquity, as can be seen in the case where a Latin paraphrase of BJ was attributed to Hegesippus, not Iosippus, and eventually Pseudo-Hegesippus.MattMorales wrote:Are we really going to split hairs over the wording in Josephus vs. Origen? It is obvious that Origen is reciting from memory or hearsay once we recognize his mistake concerning James being the trigger for Jerusalem's fall.spin wrote:This is an interesting scoping trick. As mentioned above Origen talks of "James the brother of Jesus called christ" (and later "James the Just the brother of Jesus called christ"), but AJ 20.200 uses "the brother of Jesus called christ whose name (was) James", significantly different, but if you arbitrarily trim away the bits you don't like, you get to something more visually appealing.
Origen first wrote about James the brother of Jesus called christ in his commentary on Matthew, the gospel which features the phrase "Jesus called christ". That Origen used it for the person he assumed was the brother of Jesus—as explained by Hegesippus—in the commentary seems quite a natural turn of phrase in the context.
As explained above this was a case of creeping marginalia. One scribe noted in the margin that the particular James was "the brother of Jesus called christ" as found in Comm.Mt. A later scribe took it as an omissis and put it into the text, hence the different syntax.MattMorales wrote:On the other hand, if the suggestion is that the passage in Josephus came as a later interpolation based on Origen's mistake, why then, would the Josephan phrase not exactly match the parallel in Origen? Why not also add in the detail about James' death leading to the temple's destruction? Surely if we can suggest the TF is wholly interpolated...
The TF is a different type of intervention. It was obviously intentional. Just consider the discourse marker in AJ 18.65: "another (=second) outrage threw the Jews into an uproar". The text clearly indicates that there was a first and that was the narrative outlining Pilate's acts that stirred up the Jews (18.55-62). The whole TF was inserted here because the previous section mentioned Pilate, but nothing in it indicates that the Jews were thrown into an uproar. The TF has nothing directly to do with the discourse Josephus created regarding Jewish uproars. AJ 18.65 naturally follows on from AJ 18.55-62 and does not feature the Greek particle δε indicating change of topic, but 18.63 does. We have obvious signs that the TF was stuck into its present context and not by Josephus.
We work on evidence, not opinions. If you can convince yourself that you can trust AJ 20.200's mention of Jesus, then I'm happy for you. There are some nice passages in Ps 22 for you as well. I'm not interested in your or someone else's untinged opinions. The law has a three strike rule because it works on the assumption that you can establish a pattern. We can only establish a partial habit, but the habit is clearly related to passages favorable to christian subjects. You've done nothing to change the fact that AJ 20.200 has no probative value. You've merely crapped on about opinions and mythicists, which is as helpful as a pocket in a pair of underpants.MattMorales wrote:What other way can we judge success? That it has convinced you or myself? That it has convinced mythicists (many with an ax to grind, though I don't have the audacity to speak for everyone)? If other scholars don't feel obliged to join the discussion, that might say something about the validity of the presented arguments. It is not like the TF hasn't been debated by these same scholars ad nauseam.spin wrote:Oh, rubbish. If you want to trust people's opinions, then there is no point in you discussing the matter. We should wait until those people join the conversation.