Was OT originally in Greek?

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Ben C. Smith
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

Post by Ben C. Smith » Wed Jun 13, 2018 2:41 pm

Ethan wrote:
Wed Jun 13, 2018 2:35 pm
2 Kings 18:19 - כה־אמר המלך הגדול
Hebrew Ce Amr E Mlk E Gdul
Greek Tade Legei O Basileus O Megas
Spanish Asi Dice El Rey El Grande
Latin Haec Dicit - Rex - Magnus

Spanish: "Así dice el gran rey." Every single word of this sentence derives from Latin:

así < Latin ad sic
dice < Latin dicit
el < Latin ille
gran(de) < Latin grandis
rey < Latin rex

Also, transliterating the Hebrew definite article (ה) as E is just silly.
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

Post by Ethan » Wed Jun 13, 2018 2:59 pm

Deuteronomy 18:20 - But the Prophet
πλὴν ὁ προφήτη אך ה נביא
But The Prophet
Ak E Nbia
Plhn O Profhth
- - propheta
- El profeta

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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

Post by Ben C. Smith » Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:01 pm

What are you doing?
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

Post by Ethan » Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:08 pm

Spanish derive it's articles from a language that didn't use them?
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

Post by Ben C. Smith » Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:13 pm

Ethan wrote:
Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:08 pm
Spanish derive it's articles from a language that didn't use them?
Yes. It used that language's demonstratives/determiners. A completely natural step.
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

Post by Ben C. Smith » Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:15 pm

Latin was already starting to use ille/illud/illa as a de facto definite article.
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

Post by Ethan » Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:16 pm

The Phoenician cultures that dominated the coastlines of Ancient Spain, who founded the first cities in Europe, just a Cadiz, they
never existed and had zero influence on Spanish language and cultures and the entire culture of Spain is pedigree Latin?
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

Post by Ben C. Smith » Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:24 pm

Ethan wrote:
Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:16 pm
The Phoenician cultures that dominated the coastlines of Ancient Spain, who founded the first cities in Europe, just a Cadiz, they
never existed and had zero influence on Spanish language and cultures and the entire culture of Spain is pedigree Latin?
The Phoenician cultures existed, yes. Their linguistic influence on the Spanish language, however, was minimal compared to Latin's.

The DMLBS has the following for definition 1b of ille, illa, illud:

as def. article, without demonstrative force

By the time the Romance languages developed to a certain point, Latin did have a definite article: it had pressed its demonstratives into service.
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

Post by Ben C. Smith » Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:31 pm

This process of a demonstrative turning into an article even happened in English:

the
definite article, late Old English þe, nominative masculine form of the demonstrative pronoun and adjective.

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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

Post by Ethan » Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:51 pm

The Arabic prefix article ال (el-) is phonetically close to the Hebrew , אל
and with the Latin, Ille e.g. Magnus Ille Alexander ( Alexander the Great).

Gen 31:48 "This Hill"
ה זה (E GL)
ὁ βουνὸς (Septuagint)
ὁ κολωνός (dialectic translation)
la colina (Spanish)
collis (Latin )


What Latin word would go before "Collis" that equates with ὁ ?
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