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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?
Posted: Wed Jun 13, 2018 2:41 pm
by Ben C. Smith
Ethan wrote: ↑Wed Jun 13, 2018 2:35 pm2 Kings 18:19 - כה־אמר המלך הגדול
| Hebrew |
Ce |
Amr |
E |
Mlk |
E |
Gdul |
| Greek |
Tade |
Legei |
O |
Basileus |
O |
Megas |
| Spanish |
Asi |
Dice |
El |
Rey |
El |
Grande |
| Latin |
Haec |
Dicit |
- |
Rex |
- |
Magnus |
Spanish: "Así dice el gran rey." Every single word of this sentence derives from Latin:
así < Latin ad sic
dice < Latin dicit
el < Latin ille
gran(de) < Latin grandis
rey < Latin rex
Also, transliterating the Hebrew definite article (ה) as E is just silly.
Re: Was OT originally in Greek?
Posted: Wed Jun 13, 2018 2:59 pm
by Ethan
Deuteronomy 18:20 - But the Prophet
πλὴν ὁ προφήτη אך ה נביא
| But |
The |
Prophet |
| Ak |
E |
Nbia |
| Plhn |
O |
Profhth |
| - |
- |
propheta |
| - |
El |
profeta |
Re: Was OT originally in Greek?
Posted: Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:01 pm
by Ben C. Smith
What are you doing?
Re: Was OT originally in Greek?
Posted: Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:08 pm
by Ethan
Spanish derive it's articles from a language that didn't use them?
Re: Was OT originally in Greek?
Posted: Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:13 pm
by Ben C. Smith
Ethan wrote: ↑Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:08 pm
Spanish derive it's articles from a language that didn't use them?
Yes. It used that language's demonstratives/determiners. A completely natural step.
Re: Was OT originally in Greek?
Posted: Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:15 pm
by Ben C. Smith
Latin was already starting to use ille/illud/illa as a de facto definite article.
Re: Was OT originally in Greek?
Posted: Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:16 pm
by Ethan
The Phoenician cultures that dominated the coastlines of Ancient Spain, who founded the first cities in Europe, just a Cadiz, they
never existed and had zero influence on Spanish language and cultures and the entire culture of Spain is pedigree Latin?
Re: Was OT originally in Greek?
Posted: Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:24 pm
by Ben C. Smith
Ethan wrote: ↑Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:16 pm
The Phoenician cultures that dominated the coastlines of Ancient Spain, who founded the first cities in Europe, just a Cadiz, they
never existed and had zero influence on Spanish language and cultures and the entire culture of Spain is pedigree Latin?
The Phoenician cultures existed, yes. Their linguistic influence on the Spanish language, however, was minimal compared to Latin's.
The DMLBS has the following for definition 1b of
ille, illa, illud:
as def. article, without demonstrative force
By the time the Romance languages developed to a certain point, Latin
did have a definite article: it had pressed its demonstratives into service.
Re: Was OT originally in Greek?
Posted: Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:31 pm
by Ben C. Smith
This process of a demonstrative turning into an article even happened
in English:
the
definite article, late Old English þe, nominative masculine form of the demonstrative pronoun and adjective.
Re: Was OT originally in Greek?
Posted: Wed Jun 13, 2018 3:51 pm
by Ethan
The Arabic prefix article ال (el-) is phonetically close to the Hebrew , אל
and with the Latin, Ille e.g. Magnus Ille Alexander ( Alexander the Great).
Gen 31:48 "This Hill"
ה זה (E GL)
ὁ βουνὸς (Septuagint)
ὁ κολωνός (dialectic translation)
la colina (Spanish)
collis (Latin )
What Latin word would go before "Collis" that equates with ὁ ?