The passage pertinent to Tim’s query, and to my own examination of the question of when Jesus was conceived to have performed his act of redemption, is 2 Timothy 1:9-10, for it seems to present the concept that Jesus performed that act “before time began,” (pro chronōn aiōniōn, lit., “before times eternal”). The meaning of that Greek phrase is unclear; biblical commentators cannot agree on just what the writer has in mind here. (See The Jesus Puzzle, p.118-119.) But it seems to be speaking of a dimension that lies outside or before the span of world history, the spiritual sphere of God. The question is, what is it that took place there? Here is the layout of the passage, and I’ll note the grammatical ambiguity I referred to earlier which is entailed in it, an ambiguity which in fact has an effect on our interpretation of the issue being discussed.
http://www.jesuspuzzle.com/jesuspuzzle/rfset28.htm#Tim
8 ...the gospel according to the power of God [theou, in the genitive case]
9 the one having saved [tou sōsantos, in the genitive case, referring back to “God”]
us and called us to holiness,
not from any merit of ours but according to his own purpose and grace,
which was given to us in Christ Jesus before the beginning of time
[lit., before times eternal, pro chronōn aiōniōn],
10 but now manifested [i.e., God’s grace] by the revelation [epiphaneias]
of our Savior, Christ Jesus [Xristou Iēsou, in the genitive],
having abrogated [katargēsantos, in the genitive] death
and brought life and immortality to light through the gospel...
9 the one having saved [tou sōsantos, in the genitive case, referring back to “God”]
us and called us to holiness,
not from any merit of ours but according to his own purpose and grace,
which was given to us in Christ Jesus before the beginning of time
[lit., before times eternal, pro chronōn aiōniōn],
10 but now manifested [i.e., God’s grace] by the revelation [epiphaneias]
of our Savior, Christ Jesus [Xristou Iēsou, in the genitive],
having abrogated [katargēsantos, in the genitive] death
and brought life and immortality to light through the gospel...
In the link above, Earl Doherty gives an interesting analysis of the text.
Can the text be interpreted as saying that the salvation of "us" was before the creation of the world, by the death of Jesus? While only now the effects of that mythological death are visibles, by revelations, etc ?
I suspect that, to exorcize that valid question about the when of the crucifixion, the interpolator added, in 1 Timothy (presumably shown as from the same author of 2 Timothy), the following claim:
In the sight of God, who gives life to everything, and of Christ Jesus, who while testifying before Pontius Pilate made the good confession, I charge you
(1 Timothy 6:13)