Borrowing a word into Greek from a Semitic language is not quite the same as coining a word from scratch. It may have been done independently of Matthew or Thomas in a Greek text which is generally thought to have derived from a Semitic original:mlinssen wrote: ↑Tue Jan 05, 2021 1:15 pmYou will regret that statement in due time, Robert
I have taken this year off and will write my Commentary on Thomas, and have published 3 logia so far.
The last one is of particular interest here as it is on logion 57, the seed and the Weed - which is "zizanion" both in Thomas and Matthew, and it is the only time in the entire history of mankind (tut tut) that this non existing word is mentioned
So either Thomas invented it and Matthew copied him, or Jesus / Matthew invented it and Thomas copied him
https://www.academia.edu/44840311/The_P ... dark_words
I have about a dozen other cases, similar in nature, but this one is a perfectly binary choice. Meier states:
Meier, ‘The Parable of the Wheat and the Weeds’, 726–727: ‘This Greek noun (probably of Semitic origin) does not occur in the LXX, in other Greek versions of the OT, in secular Greek before the Christian era, or in the Apostolic Fathers. In the NT, it occurs only in this parable of Matthew and its interpretation.’
(That said, I agree that there is a textual connection of some kind between Matthew and Thomas, and therefore that it is much more likely that one of them lifted this rare word from the other than that Matthew and Thomas both borrowed the same word independently for their parables, even if the use of the same term in the Apocalypse of Moses may be independent.)