Latinisms in the gospel of Mark.

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Ben C. Smith
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Latinisms in the gospel of Mark.

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Standard lists of Latinisms in the gospel of Mark usually run something like the following, from Robert Gundry, Mark: A Commentary on His Apology for the Cross, pages 1043-1044:

Though it does not prove a Roman provenance, the profusion of Latinisms in Mark supports the tradition of that provenance. These Latinisms include individual words (μόδιον = modius [4:21]; χόρτος = herba in the sense of a blade of grass [4:28]; λεγιών = legio [5:9, 15]; αἰτία = causa [5:33 v.1.]; σπεκουλάτωρ = speculator [6:27]; δηνάριον = denarius [6:37]; ξέστης = sextarius [7:4]; κη̂νσος = census [12:14]; κοδράντης = quadrans [12:42]; φραγελλόω = fragello [15:15]; πραιτώριον = praetorium [15:16]; κεντυρίων = centurio [15:39, 44, 45]), turns of phrase (ο̒δὸν ποιει̂ν = iter facere [2:23]; Ἡρῳδιανοί = Herodiani, like praetoriani [3:6; 12:13]; συμβούλιον ἐδίδουν = consilium dederunt [3:6]; ο̒́ ἐστιν = hoc est [3:17; 7:11, 34; 12:42; 15:16, 42]; ἐσχάτως ἔχει = in extremis esse [5:23]; εἰ̂πεν δοθη̂ναι αὐτῃ̂ φαγει̂ν = similar to duci eum iussit [5:43]; πυγμῃ̂ = pugnus [? — 7:3]; ἐκράτησεν = [memoria] tenere [? — 9:10]; κατακρινου̂σιν αὐτὸν θανάτω = capite damnare [? — 10:33]; ει̂χον... ο̒́τι = habere [11:32]; ρ̒απίσμασιν αὐτὸν ἔλαβον = verberibus eum acceperunt [14:65]; συμβούλιον ποιήσαντες = consilium capere [15:1]; τὸ ι̒κανὸν ποιη̂σαι = satisfacere [15:15]; τίθεντες τὰ γόνατα = genua ponentes [15:19]), possible Latin influence in word order and unusually frequent uses of ι̒́να in a non-telic sense (P. Dschulnigg, Sprache 276-78), and a Latin name identical with that of a Christian known to have lived in Rome (15:21 — Rufus; cf. Rom 16:13). There was more than one Rufus, of course. Latinisms crop up elsewhere in the NT (see, e.g., δὸς ἐργασίαν in Luke 12:58, which has no parallel in Mark, however; so Mark did not delete the Latinism and may not have known this tradition). The Marcan Latinisms consisting of individual words are military, judicial, and economic, such as would naturally travel wherever Rome extended her rule and as a matter of fact do appear widely even in Aramaic and late Hebrew literature (H. J. Cadbury, Making of Luke-Acts 88-89). But the other kinds of Latinisms outnumber these and deal with much more than the military, judicial, and economic; and the unusual profusion of Latinisms in Mark favors a setting in Rome.

But Adam Winn, on pages 81-82 of The Purpose of Mark's Gospel, has called my attention to two more subtle kinds of Latinism that I thought might be of interest:

Van Iersel [in Bas van Iersel, Mark: A Reader-Response Commentary] provides two Latinisms that have not been adequately considered in the debate regarding Mark's provenance. These Latinisms are much more subtle than those previously examined because they are imbedded in the structure of the author's language. They reflect the influence of a "Latin-speaking milieu on speakers whose mother-tongue was not Latin." The first of these Latinisms concerns the word order of verbs and substantives within the author's sentence structure. In Greek, an accusative or dative generally follows the verb to which it belongs, while the reverse is true of Latin. This Latin word order occurs in Mark 37 times, significantly more than it occurs in either Matthew or Luke. In Matthew and Luke, this Latinism occurs only twice independently of Mark (with 12 total occurrences in Matthew and 5 in Luke). The second of these Latinisms concerns the use of the word ἵνα when it is used in the same way as the Latin word ut following verbs of asking, persuading, speaking, or commanding. This construction occurs in Mark 31 times and has been preserved only eight times in Matthean parallels and four times in Lukan parallels. A number of Matthean and Lukan texts have maintained a Markan parallel but have altered the Markan use of ἵνα, replacing it with a more appropriate Greek construction. In material unique to Luke, this use of ἵνα occurs four times, while in unique Matthean material it occurs only twice. This evidence cannot easily be explained by the use of common Latin terms used in the market or by the resident military. It demonstrates that Mark's writing, much more so than that of the authors of Matthew and Luke, was influenced by Latin syntax. Such an influence on an author's writing style is much more likely if the author was writing in Rome rather than in Syria or Galilee.

I have no specific comment on these two Latinisms yet, but wanted to get them on the record for later study.

Ben.
Last edited by Ben C. Smith on Thu Jan 07, 2016 8:27 am, edited 1 time in total.
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Kunigunde Kreuzerin
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Re: Latinisms in the gospel of Mark.

Post by Kunigunde Kreuzerin »

.
Interesting
Ben C. Smith wrote:But Adam Winn, on pages 81-82 of The Purpose of Mark's Gospel, has called my attention to two more subtle kinds of Latinism that I thought might be of interest:
The second of these Latinisms concerns the use of the word ἵνα when it is used in the same way as the Latin word ut following verbs of asking, persuading, speaking, or commanding. This construction occurs in Mark 31 times and has been preserved only eight times in Matthean parallels and four times in Lukan parallels. A number of Matthean and Lukan texts have maintained a Markan parallel but have altered the Markan use of ἵνα, replacing it with a more appropriate Greek construction. In material unique to Luke, this use of iva occurs four times, while in unique Matthean material it occurs only twice. This evidence cannot easily be explained by the use of common Latin terms used in the market or by the resident military. It demonstrates that Mark's writing, much more so than that of the authors of Matthew and Luke, was influenced by Latin syntax. Such an influence on an author's writing style is much more likely if the author was writing in Rome rather than in Syria or Galilee.

Do I understand correctly that Mark 5:43 is an example for this specific use of ἵνα?
Mark 5:43
καὶ διεστείλατο αὐτοῖς πολλὰ ἵνα μηδεὶς γνοῖ τοῦτο
And he instructed them strictly that no one should know this
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Re: Latinisms in the gospel of Mark.

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Kunigunde Kreuzerin wrote:.
Interesting
Ben C. Smith wrote:But Adam Winn, on pages 81-82 of The Purpose of Mark's Gospel, has called my attention to two more subtle kinds of Latinism that I thought might be of interest:
The second of these Latinisms concerns the use of the word ἵνα when it is used in the same way as the Latin word ut following verbs of asking, persuading, speaking, or commanding. This construction occurs in Mark 31 times and has been preserved only eight times in Matthean parallels and four times in Lukan parallels. A number of Matthean and Lukan texts have maintained a Markan parallel but have altered the Markan use of ἵνα, replacing it with a more appropriate Greek construction. In material unique to Luke, this use of iva occurs four times, while in unique Matthean material it occurs only twice. This evidence cannot easily be explained by the use of common Latin terms used in the market or by the resident military. It demonstrates that Mark's writing, much more so than that of the authors of Matthew and Luke, was influenced by Latin syntax. Such an influence on an author's writing style is much more likely if the author was writing in Rome rather than in Syria or Galilee.

Do I understand correctly that Mark 5:43 is an example for this specific use of ἵνα?
Mark 5:43
καὶ διεστείλατο αὐτοῖς πολλὰ ἵνα μηδεὶς γνοῖ τοῦτο
And he instructed them strictly that no one should know this
Looks like one to me. And the Vulgate has ut at that point.
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Re: Latinisms in the gospel of Mark.

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Such an influence on an author's writing style is much more likely if the author was writing in Rome rather than in Syria or Galilee.
that's what spin used to say. where has spin gone?
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Re: Latinisms in the gospel of Mark.

Post by Ben C. Smith »

theterminator wrote:
Such an influence on an author's writing style is much more likely if the author was writing in Rome rather than in Syria or Galilee.
that's what spin used to say. where has spin gone?
No idea where spin has gone, but the provenance of Mark and the presence of those Latinisms was one of the (few?) things spin and I used to agree on at the old FRDB.
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Kunigunde Kreuzerin
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Re: Latinisms in the gospel of Mark.

Post by Kunigunde Kreuzerin »

Ben C. Smith wrote:Looks like one to me. And the Vulgate has ut at that point.
Thanks.
Ben C. Smith wrote:But Adam Winn, ...
The second of these Latinisms concerns the use of the word ἵνα when it is used in the same way as the Latin word ut following verbs of asking, persuading, speaking, or commanding. This construction occurs in Mark 31 times and has been preserved only eight times in Matthean parallels and four times in Lukan parallels.

22/31
3:9 And he told his disciples (ἵνα) to have a boat ready for him
3:12 And he strictly ordered them (ἵνα) not to make him known.
5:10 And he begged him earnestly (ἵνα) not to send them out of the country.
5:18 begged him that (ἵνα) he might be with him
5:43 And he strictly charged them that (ἵνα) no one should know this
6:8 He charged them (ἵνα) to take nothing for their journey except a staff
6:12 So they went out and proclaimed that (ἵνα) people should repent.
6:56 and implored him that (ἵνα) they might touch even the fringe of his garment
7:26 And she begged him (ἵνα) to cast the demon out of her daughter.
7:32 man who was deaf and had a speech impediment, and they begged him (ἵνα) to lay his hand on him.
7:36 And he charged them (ἵνα) to tell no one.
8:22 And some people brought to him a blind man and begged him (ἵνα) to touch him
8:30 And he strictly charged them (ἵνα) to tell no one about him.
9:9 he charged them (ἵνα) to tell no one what they had seen
9:12 And how is it written of the Son of Man that (ἵνα) he should suffer many things
10:48 And many rebuked him, (ἵνα) telling him to be silent
11:16 And he would not allow (ἵνα) anyone to carry anything through the temple.
13:18 Pray that (ἵνα) it may not happen in winter.
13:34 and commands the doorkeeper to (ἵνα) stay awake.
14:35 ... and prayed that (ἵνα), if it were possible, the hour might pass from him.
14:38 Watch and pray that (ἵνα) you may not enter into temptation.
15:11 But the chief priests stirred up the crowd (ἵνα) to have him release for them Barabbas
Does - for example - a phrase count like "I wish that (ἵνα) ..." ?
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Re: Latinisms in the gospel of Mark.

Post by Bernard Muller »

This evidence cannot easily be explained by the use of common Latin terms used in the market or by the resident military. It demonstrates that Mark's writing, much more so than that of the authors of Matthew and Luke, was influenced by Latin syntax. Such an influence on an author's writing style is much more likely if the author was writing in Rome rather than in Syria or Galilee.
I don't think necessarily the author was writing in Rome. The main reason is he would have written his gospel in Latin, the language understood by all in this city when Greek was only known by the educated ones.
Gospels were written for a local community, and not thought by the authors, initially, having a future wide distribution throughout the empire (even truer for the first one, gMark). Since most Christians then were uneducated, that gospel had to be read to them, in a language they would understand.
And the Latinism can be explained by the author being very familiar with Latin (as having emigrated from Latin Italy to a Greek speaking city).

Cordially, Bernard
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Re: Latinisms in the gospel of Mark.

Post by MrMacSon »

Bernard Muller wrote: ... Gospels were written for a local community, and not thought by the authors, initially, [as] having a future wide-distribution throughout the empire (even truer for the first one, gMark). Since most Christians then were uneducated, that gospel had to be read to them, in a language they would understand.
And the Latinism can be explained by the author being very familiar with Latin (as having emigrated from Latin Italy to a Greek speaking city).

Cordially, Bernard
Good point. There were likely to have been communities of 'ex-pats' all over the place with the then expanding Roman Empire
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Re: Latinisms in the gospel of Mark.

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Kunigunde Kreuzerin wrote:
Ben C. Smith wrote:Looks like one to me. And the Vulgate has ut at that point.
Thanks.
Ben C. Smith wrote:But Adam Winn, ...
The second of these Latinisms concerns the use of the word ἵνα when it is used in the same way as the Latin word ut following verbs of asking, persuading, speaking, or commanding. This construction occurs in Mark 31 times and has been preserved only eight times in Matthean parallels and four times in Lukan parallels.

22/31
3:9 And he told his disciples (ἵνα) to have a boat ready for him
3:12 And he strictly ordered them (ἵνα) not to make him known.
5:10 And he begged him earnestly (ἵνα) not to send them out of the country.
5:18 begged him that (ἵνα) he might be with him
5:43 And he strictly charged them that (ἵνα) no one should know this
6:8 He charged them (ἵνα) to take nothing for their journey except a staff
6:12 So they went out and proclaimed that (ἵνα) people should repent.
6:56 and implored him that (ἵνα) they might touch even the fringe of his garment
7:26 And she begged him (ἵνα) to cast the demon out of her daughter.
7:32 man who was deaf and had a speech impediment, and they begged him (ἵνα) to lay his hand on him.
7:36 And he charged them (ἵνα) to tell no one.
8:22 And some people brought to him a blind man and begged him (ἵνα) to touch him
8:30 And he strictly charged them (ἵνα) to tell no one about him.
9:9 he charged them (ἵνα) to tell no one what they had seen
9:12 And how is it written of the Son of Man that (ἵνα) he should suffer many things
10:48 And many rebuked him, (ἵνα) telling him to be silent
11:16 And he would not allow (ἵνα) anyone to carry anything through the temple.
13:18 Pray that (ἵνα) it may not happen in winter.
13:34 and commands the doorkeeper to (ἵνα) stay awake.
14:35 ... and prayed that (ἵνα), if it were possible, the hour might pass from him.
14:38 Watch and pray that (ἵνα) you may not enter into temptation.
15:11 But the chief priests stirred up the crowd (ἵνα) to have him release for them Barabbas
Does - for example - a phrase count like "I wish that (ἵνα) ..." ?
I think that would be the same thing, yes. A word meaning "to wish" would ordinarily spark an infinitive clause; for example, Matthew 5.40 has καὶ τῷ θέλοντί σοι κριθῆναι ("to the one who wishes to judge/sue you").

Here is how I understand it at this point.... (To be honest, I have grown so accustomed to this later Greek (or Latinized) use of ἵνα that I am having to dig back to my classical Greek roots a bit and remember how these constructions started, not what they became.) What introducing the ἵνα does is to act as if wishing (or saying, commanding, and so on) worked in the same way as nonverbal actions. For example, if I say that I am working (a nonverbal action) in order that (ἵνα) I might get rich, the act of working does not express in any way, as content, the intended result of getting rich. Work can be done for a lot of reasons, and I am connecting it with getting rich only by using the phrase "in order that" in my sentence. But verbs of speaking or thinking actually have content (which one might directly express using quotation marks in English), and this content is often, in Greek, expressed with an infinitive construction. In Matthew 5.40, for example, the content of the wish is to sue you in court. I am not making some random wish in order that I might get to sue you in court, as if wishing itself always led to lawsuits; rather, my wish, expressed in words, would be, "I want to sue you." The lawsuit is the content of the wish. I hope that makes sense.

But the Latin conjunction ut is routinely used after verbs of wishing, commanding, and speaking. Lewis & Short list the following:

1. In object clauses....
(α). After verbs denoting to wish, request, pray, demand, or invite....
(β). After verbs expressing or implying advice, suggestion, or exhortation....
(γ). After verbs expressing resolution or agreement to do something....
(δ). After verbs of command or prohibition....

Hence, apparently, the claim that the similar use of ἵνα in Greek is a Latinism. But bear in mind that I have not read the book being referenced. I only yesterday found the reference to it.

Ben.
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