Was god choosing Jesus just; or should the Father have chosen the cross for himself?

What do they believe? What do you think? Talk about religion as it exists today.

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Gnostic Bishop
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Re: Was god choosing Jesus just; or should the Father have chosen the cross for himself?

Post by Gnostic Bishop »

theMadJW wrote: Sun Dec 05, 2021 11:34 am And I am not interested in trying to talk to a person who thinks many parts of the Bible are wrong, and worships men's Theories.
I WILL ignore ypu.
Good.

Only the stupid believe in real talking serpents and donkeys.

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DL
bbyrd009
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Re: Was god choosing Jesus just; or should the Father have chosen the cross for himself?

Post by bbyrd009 »

Gnostic Bishop wrote: Tue Nov 30, 2021 1:04 pm
bbyrd009 wrote: Thu Nov 28, 2019 6:31 pm
bbyrd009 wrote: Thu Nov 14, 2019 7:05 am God did not choose Jesus of course; Caiaphas did. I hope yiou are well GB, you are in my prayers
God did not choose for Jesus to die on the cross for our sins,
No Son of Man may die for another's sins,
even if Jesus was in a diff sense "chosen," sure
Is it moral to offer to be a messiah?
but no offer was made, and in fact Jesus asked for the cup to be removed

Is it moral to accept another person being punished in your steed?

That is asking and or accepting the abdication of ones duty and responsibility for ones actions.
yes, and that is made clear in the Jacob/Esau cycle
Not something I taught my children.

I taught them to step up, not step back.

You?

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DL
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Re: Was god choosing Jesus just; or should the Father have chosen the cross for himself?

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bbyrd009

Thanks for this.

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DL
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Re: Was god choosing Jesus just; or should the Father have chosen the cross for himself?

Post by Gnostic Bishop »

Ticishe wrote: Thu Dec 15, 2022 3:36 am Is Jesus the Christ? Yes, He is, because He existed before the creation of the world. According to John 1:1, Jesus (The Word) was present in the beginning, He was with God, and He was God! In John 17:5, Jesus prays to the Father, asking Him to honor Him in His presence with the same splendour that He had with God before the world began. If somebody ever questions you if Jesus is God, offer them this to read! Visit The Site
Pardon the delay.

Have you considered how immoral the messianic concept is?

On Jesus dying for Christians from a moral perspective.

It takes quite an imagination and ego to think a god would actually die for us, after condemning us unjustly in the first place.

Christians have swallowed a lie and don’t care how evil they make Jesus to keep their feel good get out of hell free card.

It is a lie, first and foremost, because, like it or not, having another innocent person suffer or die for the wrongs you have done, --- so that you might escape responsibility for having done them, --- is immoral.

To abdicate your personal responsibility for your actions or use a scapegoat is immoral.

Christians also have to ignore what Jesus, as a Jewish Rabbi, would have taught his people.

Ezekiel 18:20 The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.

Deuteronomy 24:16 (ESV) "Fathers shall not be put to death because of their children, nor shall children be put to death because of their fathers. Each one shall be put to death for his own sin.

Psa 49;7 None of them can by any means redeem his brother, nor give to God a ransom for him:

There is no way that Christians parents would teach their children to use a scapegoat.
Good morals and Jesus speak against the messianic concept and bids us pick up our crosses and follow him.

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DL
bbyrd009
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Re: Was god choosing Jesus just; or should the Father have chosen the cross for himself?

Post by bbyrd009 »

Gnostic Bishop wrote: Mon Feb 28, 2022 10:50 am bbyrd009

Thanks for this.

Regards
DL
gb, howya been :)
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billd89
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Re: The Scape-Goat

Post by billd89 »

Image

Offerings to Horon, Baalzeboul, Azazel (=Archangel Michael), etc.

Thesis: Semitic boys were sent to Egypt as mercenary fodder. Most survivors stayed in Egypt, settling near their fortresses, preserving something of the faith of their homeland. And the Alexandrian OT would also preserve smthg of the folk-history of Semite children long sold into slavery (~taken into war-bondage) in Egypt. Is this idea plausible?

So did Egyptians (c.1400 BC?) practice something analogous to the Ottoman Devsirme (c. 1375 AD):
Image
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