Note on ὑπάρχων, "being", in Paul and Luke-Acts (but not in Mark)

[gryan]

Note on ὑπάρχων, "being"
ὑπάρχων, the Present Participle Active-Nominative Masculine Singular of the verb ὑπάρχω (meaning "I begin, am, exist, am in possession") is used in writings of Paul and Luke-Acts (but not elsewhere in the NT).
https://biblehub.com/greek/hyparcho_n_5225.htm

Acts 22:3
"I am a Jew, born in Tarsus of Cilicia, but brought up in this city;
I studied under Gamaliel and was thoroughly trained in the law of our ancestors;
being just as zealous for God as any of you are today.
ζηλωτὴς ὑπάρχων τοῦ Θεοῦ καθὼς πάντες ὑμεῖς ἐστε σήμερον

Gal 1:14
I was advancing in Judaism
beyond many of my own age among my people
being extremely zealous for the traditions of my fathers.
καὶ προέκοπτον ἐν τῷ Ἰουδαϊσμῷ
ὑπὲρ πολλοὺς συνηλικιώτας ἐν τῷ γένει (from γένος, offspring, family, race, nation, kind) μου,
περισσοτέρως ζηλωτὴς ὑπάρχων τῶν πατρικῶν μου παραδόσεων.

Gal 2:14
But when I saw that they are not walking uprightly to the truth of the good news,
I said to Cephas before all,
If thou, being a Jew,
in the manner of the nations dost live, and not in the manner of the Jews,
how the nations dost thou compel to Judaize? (YLT)
Εἰ σὺ Ἰουδαῖος ὑπάρχων
ἐθνικῶς καὶ οὐκ Ἰουδαϊκῶς ζῇς,
πῶς τὰ ἔθνη ἀναγκάζεις ἰουδαΐζειν;

[Kunigunde Kreuzerin]

Note on ὑπάρχων, "being"
ὑπάρχων, the Present Participle Active-Nominative Masculine Singular of the verb ὑπάρχω (meaning "I begin, am, exist, am in possession") is used in writings of Paul and Luke-Acts (but not elsewhere in the NT).
https://biblehub.com/greek/hyparcho_n_5225.htm

It may be that Paul gave ὑπάρχω a different meaning than εἰμί, while for Luke/Acts the words are perhaps more interchangeable. What do you think? (Maybe 1 Cor 11:7, 2 Cor 12:16 and Philippians 2:6 could support this.)

It would be interesting to examine this word choice, especially regarding Philippians 2:6.

[gryan]

It may be that , while for Luke/Acts the words are perhaps more interchangeable. What do you think?

Thanks for those interesting comparisons! I'm pondering them.

Re: Did Paul gave ὑπάρχω a different meaning than εἰμί?

Acts 6:13
Paul wanted Timothy to accompany him,
so he took him and circumcised him on account of the Jews in that area,
for they all knew that his father was a Greek.
ὅτι Ἕλλην ὁ πατὴρ αὐτοῦ ὑπῆρχεν.

Gal 2:3
Yet not even Titus, who was with me, being a Greek, was compelled to be circumcised.
ἀλλ’ οὐδὲ Τίτος ὁ σὺν ἐμοί, Ἕλλην ὤν (not ὑπάρχων), ἠναγκάσθη περιτμηθῆναι·

In Gal, at least in this one example, the PPA-NMS of ὑπάρχω and εἰμί appear to be interchangeable.

[MrMacSon]

Acts 6:13
Paul wanted Timothy to accompany him,
so he took him and circumcised him on account of the Jews in that area,
for they all knew that his father was a Greek.
ὅτι Ἕλλην ὁ πατὴρ αὐτοῦ ὑπῆρχεν.

I imagine that, ὅτι Ἕλλην ὁ πατὴρ αὐτοῦ ὑπῆρχεν, could be translated, 'for they all knew [about] his father being a Greek'

[gryan]

Acts 6:13
Paul wanted Timothy to accompany him,
so he took him and circumcised him on account of the Jews in that area,
for they all knew that his father was a Greek.
ὅτι Ἕλλην ὁ πατὴρ αὐτοῦ ὑπῆρχεν.

I imagine that, ὅτι Ἕλλην ὁ πατὴρ αὐτοῦ ὑπῆρχεν, could be translated, 'for they all knew [about] his father being a Greek'

I'm not sure.

I tend to woodenly translate participles with words ending in -ing, and I see that tends to be the pattern with ὑπάρχων:
https://biblehub.com/greek/uparcho_n_5225.htm

Usually also with ὢν, but with many exceptions.
https://biblehub.com/greek/o_n_1510.htm

By contrast, ὑπῆρχεν (V-IIA-3S), is not translated with an -ing word in any of these examples:
https://biblehub.com/greek/hype_rchen_5225.htm

And ἦν (V-IIA-3S) is always "was":
https://biblehub.com/greek/e_n_1510.htm

[schillingklaus]

Huparchon is not simply about being, as apologists try to force mankind to believe; but it is about the primordial essence. So Jesus was of divine shape from the beginning. The same way, huparchon is used in Gal 2:14 and in 1 Co 11:7, as well as in Acts.

[gryan]

Huparchon is not simply about being, as apologists try to force mankind to believe; but it is about the primordial essence. So Jesus was of divine shape from the beginning. The same way, huparchon is used in Gal 2:14 and in 1 Co 11:7, as well as in Acts.

RE: "The same way, huparchon is used in Gal 2:14 and in 1 Co 11:7"

Are you saying that Jew and Greek, Male and Female are qualitatively different in "primordial essence"? And huparchon conveys that meaning? If so, can you cite any written sources to support your claim?

[gryan]

Note on ὑπάρχων, "being"
ὑπάρχων, the Present Participle Active-Nominative Masculine Singular of the verb ὑπάρχω (meaning "I begin, am, exist, am in possession") is used in writings of Paul and Luke-Acts (but not elsewhere in the NT).
https://biblehub.com/greek/hyparcho_n_5225.htm

Acts 22:3
"I am a Jew, born in Tarsus of Cilicia, but brought up in this city;
I studied under Gamaliel and was thoroughly trained in the law of our ancestors;
being just as zealous for God as any of you are today.
ζηλωτὴς ὑπάρχων τοῦ Θεοῦ καθὼς πάντες ὑμεῖς ἐστε σήμερον

Gal 1:14
I was advancing in Judaism
beyond many of my own age among my people
being extremely zealous for the traditions of my fathers.
καὶ προέκοπτον ἐν τῷ Ἰουδαϊσμῷ
ὑπὲρ πολλοὺς συνηλικιώτας ἐν τῷ γένει (from γένος, offspring, family, race, nation, kind) μου,
περισσοτέρως ζηλωτὴς ὑπάρχων τῶν πατρικῶν μου παραδόσεων.

Gal 2:14
But when I saw that they are not walking uprightly to the truth of the good news,
I said to Cephas before all,
If thou, being a Jew,
in the manner of the nations dost live, and not in the manner of the Jews,
how the nations dost thou compel to Judaize? (YLT)
Εἰ σὺ Ἰουδαῖος ὑπάρχων
ἐθνικῶς καὶ οὐκ Ἰουδαϊκῶς ζῇς,
πῶς τὰ ἔθνη ἀναγκάζεις ἰουδαΐζειν;

Re: Possible stylistic influence of Galatians on Luke-Acts, curiously absent in Mark

As ὑπάρχων, "being", is absent in Mark,
so also the word ἐνώπιον, from en and óps (the eye, face), "before", literally, "in the eye (of God),"
LXX, Ex. 33:11 "The LORD would speak to Moses face to face (ἐνώπιος ἐνωπίῳ)..."
https://biblehub.com/greek/eno_pion_1799.htm
(which appears in the loaded phrase ἐνώπιον τοῦ Θεοῦ, "before God", in Gal 1:20),
appears frequently in Luke-Acts but not even once in Mark:

Gal 1:20 in respect Paul's to 14 days with Cephas [Peter],
And the things that I write to you, lo, before God (ἐνώπιον τοῦ Θεοῦ) -- I lie not...

Cf. Acts 10:30f, likewise, with Peter
And Cornelius said, “Four days ago, about this hour, I was praying in my house at the ninth hour, and behold, a man stood before (ἐνώπιόν) me in bright clothing and said, ‘Cornelius, your prayer has been heard and your alms have been remembered before God (ἐνώπιον τοῦ Θεοῦ). Send therefore to Joppa and ask for Simon who is called Peter. He is lodging in the house of Simon, a tanner, by the sea.’ So I sent for you at once, and you have been kind enough to come. Now therefore we are all here before God (ἐνώπιον τοῦ Θεοῦ) to hear all that you [Peter] have been commanded by the Lord.”

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My project here is first and foremost to explore Carlson's critical text of Galatians (minus "to whom not" in Gal 2:5) in light of canonical echoes. imho Paul's letter to the Galatians was known by the author of Luke-Acts.

It is in this context that I'm pondering these two (are there more?) stylistic echoes of Galatians in Luke-Acts that are conspicuously absent in Mark (I think the author of Mark knew Galatians too, but in some peculiar ways, the literary influence on the two Gospel writers was different).