As you probably know, I actually think neither. Mark appears the earliest. There is no evidence of any earlier one. I am sympathetic to a Matthew-first model, but the balance of evidence doesn’t support it, so I’d put that second on the forced-rank list (whereby Matthew did it first, Mark is a “rewrite,” and Luke a revision of both).
Then, third on that list, I’d put the MacDonald thesis, except I don’t accept his dating of it. He is simply wrong about the Sermon on the Mount being pre-war. It is most definitely post-war. But with that change, MacDonald’s thesis can survive as the third most likely, wherein Q-Plus is first, then Mark/Matthew, then Luke-Acts.
I am not persuaded by any argument yet that Marcion’s Luke was a proto-gospel. I am fairly certain it was his own redaction of Luke, scrubbed to clear it of anything too damning of his theology.
Then, third on that list, I’d put the MacDonald thesis, except I don’t accept his dating of it. He is simply wrong about the Sermon on the Mount being pre-war. It is most definitely post-war. But with that change, MacDonald’s thesis can survive as the third most likely, wherein Q-Plus is first, then Mark/Matthew, then Luke-Acts.
I am not persuaded by any argument yet that Marcion’s Luke was a proto-gospel. I am fairly certain it was his own redaction of Luke, scrubbed to clear it of anything too damning of his theology.
In whiletime, I have found the following argument (by a mythicist I would like not mention) supporting the priority of a proto-Matthew, or how you would like to call a first gospel written by Judaizers:
Un tel écrit basé sur des textes prophétiques, ou censés tels, ne pouvait voir le jour que chez des chrétiens de vieille observance très attachés au judaïsme traditionnel.
Thoughts?