Why Mark adds "not as the scribes"?

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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Giuseppe
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Re: Why Mark adds "not as the scribes"?

Post by Giuseppe »

Kunigunde Kreuzerin wrote: Fri Jan 13, 2023 2:46 pm Giuseppe, imho John is correct. It seems to me that you are assuming a more modern meaning of the word authority. In Mark, however, it means the authority given by God, which the scribes do not have.
a relative vs absolute comparison is not a modern thing to say. Curiously, when asked about the origin of his authority, Mark's Jesus doesn't answer, but he points out the human disagreement about the origin of the baptism of John Just as in Marcion.
schillingklaus
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Re: Why Mark adds "not as the scribes"?

Post by schillingklaus »

The Danielic stuff is just late (antimarcionite) appropriation.
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