The evident primacy of the Gospel of John as the first of them all

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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MrMacSon
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Re: The evident primacy of the Gospel of John as the first of them all

Post by MrMacSon »

mlinssen wrote: Fri Jan 13, 2023 1:54 am That's interesting. The issue that I have with Pauline priority - period - is that I find it very hard to imagine that a letter from HQ is sent to various branch offices without any story every having been written about anything.
You cannot have a movement of anything, larger than a few hundred people, where there is nothing written down - that simply is impossible, nothing works that way It is insane
Paul the Uncertain wrote: Fri Jan 13, 2023 4:45 am
Why ought we to think that the Christian movement had more than a few hundred "members" by say 50 CE? (After which, on the consensus timeline, there is something written down - Paul's letters.)

Plus, of course, the Jewish scriptures were long since written down, and were still being consulted while Paul was preaching according to his letters.

Although I'm unsure of its relevance, Paul's letter to the Romans isn't from HQ to a branch office. Nor, according to Galatians, would Paul's office be HQ for the Judean assemblies, and his claim to any enduring leadership in Antioch is unclear - maybe a condominium* with the Jerusalem pillars, maybe nothing at all. What, if anything, was going on in Damascus is similarly unclear. And while Acts is dubious history, it surely is pro-Paul, and he plays no role at all in the conversion of Simon and his followers (an already somewhat organized group?) in Samaria.

While the issue of numbers in early ecclesia, communities, gatherings or 'congregations' is worth considering and discussing, it isn't the only issue.

I think key then concurrent or related issues are
  1. what the nature of the early texts might have been ie. the Pauline letters; the early gospels, including apocryphal gospels such as G.Philip, etc.; & other texts such as the so-called catholic letters (aka the Praxapostolos); and
  2. what order the early texts might really have been;
  3. what the early textual groupings were;
  4. what the early readership groupings might have been (and how those groupings interacted, grew and changed over time)
Martijn has proposed G.Thomas is early.
And G.John. I tend to agree. That raises the prospect that the Johannine epistles were : some scholars thing they preceded G.John
Revelation might have been earlier than its position in the NT canon might lead one to think
As might the Epistle to the Hebrews

Did some of the first versions of canonical texts - including the Pauline letters - arise in non-orthodox circumstances eg. Docetic='Gnostic' ones ??

* by condominium I presume you're using the olde Latin meaning of co-dominion or co-ownership or even 'co-coverage' of 'territory'

As Paul-the-Uncertain notes, what was going on with these letters and even in some places, such as Damascus, is unclear.

And it is noteworthy that Acts does not have Paul having a role at all in 'the conversion of Simon and his followers (an already somewhat organized group?) in Samaria.'
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MrMacSon
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Re: The evident primacy of the Gospel of John as the first of them all

Post by MrMacSon »

I recently posted a map on the places the Pauline letters were addressed to Paul viewtopic.php?p=148189#p148189

The Johannine documents are said, iiuc, to have been written in and around Ephesus and Patmos ie. central to the Pauline communities in terms of east-west orientation (and equal southern in terms of north-south orientation)

Paul's epistle to the Romans may not have been addressed to Romans in Rome
lclapshaw
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Re: The evident primacy of the Gospel of John as the first of them all

Post by lclapshaw »

mlinssen wrote: Wed Jan 11, 2023 2:14 pm
lclapshaw wrote: Wed Jan 11, 2023 1:16 pm You mention a "core" John; by any chance do you have a link to this? I would really like to see it.

Lane
Well I have David James Audlin's, but that is not what I meant.
At one point I came across what one author felt was the stripped down original of TGoJ, before it was edited and expanded on, have you ever come across anything like that?
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Re: The evident primacy of the Gospel of John as the first of them all

Post by mlinssen »

MrMacSon wrote: Fri Jan 13, 2023 1:03 pm I recently posted a map on the places the Pauline letters were addressed to Paul viewtopic.php?p=148189#p148189

The Johannine documents are said, iiuc, to have been written in and around Ephesus and Patmos ie. central to the Pauline communities in terms of east-west orientation (and equal southern in terms of north-south orientation)

Paul's epistle to the Romans may not have been addressed to Romans in Rome
Just point me to where the Patristics point to Paul please

He doesn't exist to them. And again, Irenaeus is the first to mention him - it all starts with Irenaeus
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Re: The evident primacy of the Gospel of John as the first of them all

Post by mlinssen »

lclapshaw wrote: Fri Jan 13, 2023 2:08 pm
mlinssen wrote: Wed Jan 11, 2023 2:14 pm
lclapshaw wrote: Wed Jan 11, 2023 1:16 pm You mention a "core" John; by any chance do you have a link to this? I would really like to see it.

Lane
Well I have David James Audlin's, but that is not what I meant.
At one point I came across what one author felt was the stripped down original of TGoJ, before it was edited and expanded on, have you ever come across anything like that?
https://www.amazon.com/Gospel-John-Orig ... 1495225534

Not what you had in mind, I think?
Charles Wilson
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Re: The evident primacy of the Gospel of John as the first of them all

Post by Charles Wilson »

mlinssen wrote: Wed Jan 11, 2023 2:14 pm Read him in Greek and he is just astonishingly deep: let's take Berean literal as usual

ἦν (Was) δὲ (now) ὁ (the) χιτὼν (tunic) ἄραφος (seamless), ἐκ (from) τῶν (the) ἄνωθεν (top) ὑφαντὸς (woven) δι’ (throughout) ὅλου (all).

ἄραφος doesn't exist as a word, it may come from the verb ῥάπτω: un-patched, and naturally that refers to logion 47 where a new garment receives an old patch - which Marcion turned around in order to make explicit that good new religion most definitely want fit for Judaics
mlinssen --

Today was one of those days where things simply fall from the sky in front of me and I have to figure things out as best I can.
As usual, I'm not arguing against you - How could I? - but there is a different Path that opens up what the Beauty of Language illuminates, a pointer to someone else's mind.

There *IS* a word for "Seamless" that is used to describe a "Seamless Garment":

Suetonius, 12 Caesars, "Galba":

Not long after this he [Galba] learned that Otho held possession of the Camp,​ and when several advised him to proceed thither as soon as possible — for they said that he could win the day by his presence and prestige — he decided to do no more than hold his present position and strengthen it by getting together a guard of the legionaries, who were encamped in many different quarters of the city. He did however put on a linen cuirass, though he openly declared that it would afford little protection against so many swords.."

***
https://www.etymonline.com/word/cuirass:

"cuirass (n.)

"armor for the chest and back," mid-15c., curase, curasse, from Old French cuirace (15c.), from Late Latin coriacea vestis "garment of leather," from Latin corium "leather, hide" (see corium). Cognate with Italian corazza, Spanish coraza, Portuguese couraça. Related: Cuirassier "mounted soldier wearing a cuirass," 1620s; "the proper name of a certain type of heavy cavalry in European armies" [OED].
Entries linking to cuirass
corium (n.)

"innermost layer of the skin," 1836, from Latin corium "skin, hide, leather," related to cortex "bark," scortum "skin, hide," from PIE root *sker- (1) "to cut" (compare Sanskrit krtih "hide;" Old Church Slavonic scora "skin," Russian skora "hide," kora "bark;" Welsh corwg "boat made with leather skins," all from the same root).
*sker- (1)

also *ker-, Proto-Indo-European root meaning "to cut."

"It forms all or part of: bias; carnage; carnal; carnation; carnival; carnivorous; carrion; cenacle; charcuterie; charnel; corium; cortex; crone; cuiOld English sceran, scieran "to cleave, hew, cut with a sharp instrument;" Old Irish scaraim "I separate;" Welsh ysgar "to separate," ysgyr "fragment." "
τῶν is plural genitive, of-the(PL)

ἄνωθεν ἄνω

I.adv. of place from above, from on high, Hdt., Trag., etc.; ὕδατος ἄνωθεν γενομένου, i. e. rain, Thuc.: from the upper country, from inland, id=Thuc.
2.= ἄνω, above, on high, Trag.; οἱ ἄν. the living, opp. to οἱ κάτω, Aesch.:—c. gen., Hdt.
II.of Time, from the beginning, Plat., Dem.:— by descent, Theocr.; τὰ ἄν. first principles, Plat.
2.over again, anew, NTest

And again we see the excruciating banality of the NT blending everything into a bland

ὅλος doesn't mean 'all', it means 'whole'

ὑφαίνω

I. [select] to weave, ἱστὸν ὑφαίνειν to weave a web, Hom.; ἱμάτιον Plat., etc.:—absol. to weave, ply the loom, Hdt.:—Mid., ἱμάτιον ὑφαίνεσθαι to weave oneself a cloak, Plat.
II. [select] to contrive, plan, invent, Lat. texere, δόλον ὑφαίνειν Il.; μῆτιν ὑφ. Od.
III. [select] generally, to create, construct, Pind

Gently woven, contrived, created, and the connotation of a round web or wheel is beautiful

ἦν (Was) δὲ (however) ὁ (the) χιτὼν (tunic) ἄραφος (unpatched), ἐκ (from) τῶν (those-of-the) ἄνωθεν (above) ὑφαντὸς (woven) δι’ (through) ὅλου (whole)

An unpatched χιτὼν, the garment worn next the skin, through and through whole, woven by those above: pristine, perfect, untainted, is this skin, this shell, and naturally that reflects on IS, who is (one with) the father

That is John, and he is beautiful, and he really didn't deserve to get smeared by being included in the NT, redacted into the last position
***
John tells the story that the Synoptics do not. Galba is beheaded after being run through by soldiers and ...his head bandages are separated and in a corner in the Tomb. Otho falls on his sword and gets the wound at his side - Blood and water pour out , presumably at the Po River.
Vitellius finds his homosexual lover Asiaticus at a bazaar selling Posca and it's hard to imagine a more graphic crossover than putting vinegar on a sponge on a hyssop stick and placing the sponge at the mouth of that one on the cross

So I have to find a Unification of the woven Seamless Garment that had Echoes of the Gospel of Thomas, which, you assert, came first.

"So much to learn in so little time..."

Thank you again, mlinssen.

CW
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Leucius Charinus
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Re: The evident primacy of the Gospel of John as the first of them all

Post by Leucius Charinus »

mlinssen wrote: Fri Jan 13, 2023 1:54 am The issue that I have with Pauline priority - period - is that I find it very hard to imagine that a letter from HQ is sent to various branch offices without any story every having been written about anything.
But isn't that the whole point of Acts?
You cannot have a movement of anything, larger than a few hundred people, where there is nothing written down - that simply is impossible, nothing works that way.
Acts has it that 5,000 souls were converted. Many demographic models for the growth of the Christian community from the 1st to the 4th century are reliant upon these 5,000 newly converted Christians.
Where the hell does the story come from that the letters were written prior to any gospel? It is insane
IDK but the only way I see the intended chronology working is that:

1) Jesus did his gig in Judea and attracted the Twelve (eyewitnesses).

2) Luke (or some other unknown) writes Acts where -
a) the 12 - armed with the Holy Spirit - convert the nations, becoming the 70
b) Paul and his vision "On the Road Again" plus his letters fit here. Churches start.

3) At the end of their action packed life (before 70 CE) the Eyewitnesses compose their memoirs and gospels.

Obviously I don't believe any of the above is historical. But if the question is what was the intended chronology of the authorship of the NT canonical "package" then the above seems to fit together in some sequence. After which:

4) Eusebius and the Ante Nicene Fathers then continue the "history" of "The Nation of the Christians" from Papias to the doors of the Nicene Council.
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Re: The evident primacy of the Gospel of John as the first of them all

Post by MrMacSon »

mlinssen wrote:
https://www.amazon.com/Gospel-John-Orig ... 1495225534 [Commentaries on the Text [of G.John]]
Not what you had in mind, I think?

That's volume 2. Here's a link to volume 1: "The Gospel of John. Volume 1: The Text and the history of the Text"
There's also
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Re: The evident primacy of the Gospel of John as the first of them all

Post by Leucius Charinus »

mlinssen wrote: Wed Jan 11, 2023 1:10 pm
///

John only got included in the NT because he couldn't be excluded, it is as simple as that. Go on then, please, make a business case for including John in the NT - I simply can't
John is the Logos Salesman. He is selling Sophia back to the Greeks wrapped up in the Jesus Christ Story Book. It was a technical term in most Graeco-Roman philosophical schools. John was an eyewitness but he was also a philosopher !!

The Logos went back to the pre-Socratics. Plato, according to Christian chronological doctrine, received his wisdom from Moses. Judaic roots trump Hellenic roots. John was still busy trumping. The small elite literary group that assembled the canonical NT needed a deep and meaningful Logos Prologue. John's hand was raised by string from a distance.


I have no idea at the moment whether this scholarship is sound:

John’s view of Jesus as the Logos

In the book of John, he begins by describing Jesus as the “Word” (Jn 1:1, 14). This is John’s translation of “the Logos”; it utilizes Philo’s Jewish Philosophy and the masculine form of “Sophia”. This masculine term better suits John’s pursuit in portraying Jesus as this concept of Sophia; the concept of divine wisdom.

https://blogs.uoregon.edu/rel317w15drre ... the-logos/

But if it is --- then John is the masculine Logos Salesman. Part of the Moses chain. He is selling a masculine Sophia back to the Greeks wrapped up as a name or title of Jesus H. Christ. See: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logos_(Christianity)

The Greeks were not happy about this. The trinity of Jesus H. Christ was a little controversial at first. Yet they bought the story book in the end with a little help from the archons.

The Johannine Comma becomes relevant as an indication of the longevity of the church industry's business model for the immaculate transmission of manuscripts.
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Re: The evident primacy of the Gospel of John as the first of them all

Post by lclapshaw »

mlinssen wrote: Fri Jan 13, 2023 2:35 pm
lclapshaw wrote: Fri Jan 13, 2023 2:08 pm
mlinssen wrote: Wed Jan 11, 2023 2:14 pm
lclapshaw wrote: Wed Jan 11, 2023 1:16 pm You mention a "core" John; by any chance do you have a link to this? I would really like to see it.

Lane
Well I have David James Audlin's, but that is not what I meant.
At one point I came across what one author felt was the stripped down original of TGoJ, before it was edited and expanded on, have you ever come across anything like that?
https://www.amazon.com/Gospel-John-Orig ... 1495225534

Not what you had in mind, I think?
The book description doesn't really fill me with much confidence I'm afraid. Sounds like a total fruitloop romp.
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