A new? understanding of John 9:25-27

[lsayre]

Genesis 2:24 “Therefore a man leaves his father and his mother and cleaves to his wife, and they become one flesh.”

John 19:25-27

In brief: Jesus (while on the cross) married and then passed himself (the son of Mary) into (his [at that hour] wife) Mary Magdalene. "Woman, behold your Son" (within Mary Magdalene).

In detail, and in context (parentheses and punctuation are mine):
25 but standing by the cross of Jesus were his mother and his mother’s sister (wherein sister might mean here similarly as would 'brother in the faith'), Mary the wife of Clopas (Jesus Mother), and Mary Magdalene (the disciple Jesus loved). 26 When Jesus saw his mother and the disciple whom he loved (and to whom he was quite likely thereby betrothed) standing nearby, he said to his mother, “Woman, behold, your son (in Mary Magdalene, I.E. behold my at this moment wife, now one in flesh with me, and who has [as per Genesis 2:24] literally become me)!” 27 Then he said to the disciple (whom he had just married from the cross), “Behold, your mother!” And from that hour the disciple (now, officially via this very proclamation, Jesus wife) took her to his own (I.E., Jesus at that hour married Mary Magdalene, whereby at that instance they became one, and Jesus merged into Mary Magdalene as "one flesh"). [the word 'home' is not in the text]

[rgprice]

Two things. #1 John never names the mother of Jesus. #2 v27 "the disciple took her into his own household."

I don't necessarily disagree with the potential interpretation, but v27 seems to spoil it.

[lsayre]

interlinear translation of John 19:27

afterward he says to the student: you see the mother of you and out of of that of the hour he took the student her into/unto the his own.

https://www.abarim-publications.com/Int ... arsed.html

This verse affirms that Jesus possessed her body. Orthodox teaching and upbringing and brainwashing seem to intentionally distort this.

Again, the text never says house or household.

[lsayre]

If John (in it's earliest and most Gnostic leaning form) came before the Synoptics, then they (as a group) are placed before John whereby to fully precondition the mind of the reader.

[mlinssen]

interlinear translation of John 19:27

afterward he says to the student: you see the mother of you and out of of that of the hour he took the student her into/unto the his own.

https://www.abarim-publications.com/Int ... arsed.html

This verse affirms that Jesus possessed her body. Orthodox teaching and upbringing and brainwashing seem to intentionally distort this.

Again, the text never says house or household.

John 19:27 εἶτα (Then) λέγει (He says) τῷ (to the) μαθητῇ (disciple), “Ἴδε (Behold) ἡ (the) μήτηρ (mother) σου (of you).” καὶ (And) ἀπ’ (from) ἐκείνης (that) τῆς (-) ὥρας (hour) ἔλαβεν (took) ὁ (the) μαθητὴς (disciple) αὐτὴν (her) εἰς (to) τὰ (the) ἴδια (own).

Disciple is subject, 'her' is object

[rgprice]

I'll admit it is a strange text and doesn't seem to make much sense as it is presented. But as it stands, the presented text requires that "her" is the mother of Jesus and "his" is the disciple that he loved.

But it is odd the way the whole thing is setup:

25 Now beside the cross of Jesus stood His mother, His mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene. 26 So when Jesus saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing nearby, He said to His mother, “Woman, behold, your son!” 27 Then He said to the disciple, “Behold, your mother!” And from that hour the disciple took her into his own household.

v26 certainly implies that the "disciple whom he loved" is one of the previously listed people.

[lsayre]

I'm baffled as to how the many who are abjectly terrified by the implications of 'Secret Mark' almost 100% prefer Jesus to love a man within the Gospel of John. The reading which I present here implies that Jesus loved a woman.

[GakuseiDon]

I'm baffled as to how the many who are abjectly terrified by the implications of 'Secret Mark' almost 100% prefer Jesus to love a man within the Gospel of John. The reading which I present here implies that Jesus loved a woman.

It's an interesting reading, but it's worth pointing out that the word being used there is "agape", which is used often to mean "general love of others" rather than a specific sexual attachment to one person.

[GakuseiDon]

This may or may not be applicable. According to this translation of the Gospel of Thomas:
http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/t ... -anon.html

(114) Simon Peter said to them: Let Mary go forth from among us, for women are not worthy of the life. Jesus said: Behold, I shall lead her, that I may make her male, in order that she also may become a living spirit like you males. For every woman who makes herself male shall enter into the kingdom of heaven.

[rgprice]

Interesting.