Bruno Bauer: 1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel

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Giuseppe
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Bruno Bauer: 1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel

Post by Giuseppe »


there can be no doubt about the composition of our letter based on the gospel source text that underlies Luke’s gospel, which itself is already a later version of the original gospel

https://vridar.org/bruno-bauer-criticis ... ns-letter/

I have read a lot of mythicists arguing that the epistles precede the gospels, and now I learn that Bruno Bauer thinks precisely the contrary: 1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel, a lost gospel on which the same Gospel of Luke was based (probably Bauer means proto-Luke).

I don't find a clear statement by Bauer that proto-Mark would be a such lost Earliest Gospel (I would be grateful if you can find it), since he names it only 'source text'.

Hence now it becomes clear why in the Gospels, Paul doesn't figure as actor. From far, the particularity that surprises more.

I have reconstructed, until now, the synoptic solution proposed by Bauer as follows:

proto-gospel ---> epistles ---> proto-Luke ----> Matthew ---> Luke-Acts
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Re: Bruno Bauer: 1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel

Post by Charles Wilson »

Giuseppe wrote: Sat Apr 22, 2023 9:02 am
1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel, a lost gospel on which the same Gospel of Luke was based (probably Bauer means proto-Luke). [/b]
1Corinthians 1: 10 - 16 (RSV):

[10] I appeal to you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that all of you agree and that there be no dissensions among you, but that you be united in the same mind and the same judgment.
[11] For it has been reported to me by Chlo'e's people that there is quarreling among you, my brethren.
[12] What I mean is that each one of you says, "I belong to Paul," or "I belong to Apol'los," or "I belong to Cephas," or "I belong to Christ."
[13] Is Christ divided? Was Paul crucified for you? Or were you baptized in the name of Paul?
[14] I am thankful that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Ga'ius;
[15] lest any one should say that you were baptized in my name.
[16] (I did baptize also the household of Steph'anas. Beyond that, I do not know whether I baptized any one else.)

Compare with:

Tacitus, Histories, Book 4:

While things were in this state, while there was division in the Senate, resentment among the conquered, no real authority in the conquerors, and in the country at large no laws and no Emperor, Mucianus entered the capital, and at once drew all power into his own hands. The influence of Primus Antonius and Varus Arrius was destroyed; for the irritation of Mucianus against them, though not revealed in his looks, was but ill-concealed, and the country, keen to discover such dislikes, had changed its tone and transferred its homage. He alone was canvassed and courted, and he, surrounding himself with armed men, and bargaining for palaces and gardens, ceased not, what with his magnificence, his proud bearing, and his guards, to grasp at the power, while he waved the titles of Empire. The murder of Calpurnius Galerianus caused the utmost consternation. He was a son of Caius Piso, and had done nothing, but a noble name and his own youthful beauty made him the theme of common talk; and while the country was still unquiet and delighted in novel topics, there were persons who associated him with idle rumours of Imperial honours. By order of Mucianus he was surrounded with a guard of soldiers. Lest his execution in the capital should excite too much notice, they conducted him to the fortieth milestone from Rome on the Appian Road, and there put him to death by opening his veins. Julius Priscus, who had been prefect of the Prætorian Guard under Vitellius, killed himself rather out of shame than by compulsion..."

There's more History than may be consumed on this Subject. Calpurnius Galerianus turns out to be Stephen Martyr (In Part) who gets stoned in Acts and has his veins opened in Tacitus (Do you go to sleep when you are stoned?...)

No "Lost Gospel"!
Tacitus!

CW
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Re: Bruno Bauer: 1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel

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I see that the examples listed by Bauer as evidence of knowledge of a lost gospel in 1 Corinthians are subjected to the following criticism: why didn't the author mention more explicitly the earthly Jesus of this proto-gospel?

In addition, I can't think that Paul (or the forger in his place) knew, from previous sources, that Jesus was killed by Pilate.


Now I understand why Robert M. Price praises apparently Bauer, but then really he praises more Van Manen. The latter didn't think that 1 Corinthians was based on a gospel. Van Manen believed that there was only the memory of a historical Jesus in the mind of the false "Paul" who wrote 1 Corinthians. In this way, Price has only to replace the memory of a historical Jesus with the memory of a mythical Jesus, in order to use Van Manen for his mythicist views.

This means that the first person who has made the argument that the author of the epistles ignored completely an earthly Jesus (and a gospel about him), is William Benjamin Smith, author of Ecce Deus. Followed by Drews, Moutier-Rousset, Couchoud, etc.

Another criticism I raise against Bauer is against his skepticism that the glossolalia was a historical phenomenon among early Christians. My suspicion is that Bauer didn't like that the early Christians were irrational people according to our modern parameters.
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Re: Bruno Bauer: 1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel

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In definitive, the challenge I throw against Bruno Bauer:

Give me good reasons about why precisely Pilate would have been introduced in this presumed Earliest Christian Book behind 1 Corinthians, and only by then I will give up to believe that the epistles are genuine.
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Re: Bruno Bauer: 1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel

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Well. Bauer is not able to explain why Pilate. He throws only doubt on the story.
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Re: Bruno Bauer: 1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel

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Even Bolland, who recognized that 1 Corinthians 2:6-8 assumes a celestial crucifixion in outer space, was obliged to assume that the rest of the epistle was based on a lost 'Gospel of Egyptians', indebted in this by Bauer. My point is that once you place the epistles after the 70 CE, then you are obliged to assume the presence of an earthly Jesus in them, without being able to explain how was it introduced in primis.
  • At most, the placing of the epistles after the 70 gives support to the Amalgam Theory, as brilliantly exposed by prof Christophe Batsch and by George Solomon.
  • If one wants the best mythicist case, i.e. denying the historical Jesus in absolute terms, then he/she is obliged to assume a pre-70 Paul.


The line of development is:

William Benjamin Smith ---> Arthur Drews --->Gordon Louis Rylands ---> Paul-Louis Couchoud ---> Jean Pain ---> Moutier-Rousset ---> Georges Ory ---> Earl Doherty ----> Richard Carrier.
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Re: Bruno Bauer: 1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel

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I think that Robert M. Price is not intellectually honest, when he wants both the requisites:
a post-70 Paul and a celestial crucifixion in outer space.

Jarek Stolartz is right in recognizing where Carrier fails:


The early Paul, dated 40-60 CE, is like air to the mythicists. Paul's late dating kills the theories of Carrier and others that Jesus was a figment of Paul's or other Gnostics' imaginations. I follow in your footsteps, Hellenistic Jerusalem and many different stories about the historical Jesus. Several traditions are created on their basis. Paul believed in the historical Jesus. Paul learned a poor version of the story about Jesus. It is a story about sacrifice, condemnation, crucifixion and resurrection. Nothing more.

(my bold)

...but he is wrong when he thinks that this false Paul knew only a story about death and resurrection. As proved by Bauer, a post-70 Paul knew already an entire life on earth of Jesus, beyond if historical in nuce or fabricated ex nihilo.

Arthur Schopenhauer was the more genial in absolute terms, when he realized that the historicity of Jesus could be saved, even only as a mere possibility, only by post-dating Paul after the 70 CE. With only a single comment of such tenor, Schopenhauer succeed to realize what 3 centuries of biblical studies have failed to understand fully.

Insofar Paul is assumed to precede the 70 CE, Richard Carrier is fully justified in beating Bart Errorman.
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Re: Bruno Bauer: 1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel

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Giuseppe wrote: Sat Apr 22, 2023 9:02 am and now I learn that Bruno Bauer thinks precisely the contrary: 1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel, a lost gospel on which the same Gospel of Luke was based (probably Bauer means proto-Luke).
Can you include the text of his argument, or summarize it for us? I am curious how there can be a “basis” in 1 Cor (which Bauer seems to think is mostly fraudulent) for the story of the Galilean messiah.
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Re: Bruno Bauer: 1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel

Post by Giuseppe »

Irish1975 wrote: Sun Apr 23, 2023 6:10 am (which Bauer seems to think is mostly fraudulent)
the fraud is always possible, but I follow Richard Carrier when he says that if everything is based on a story and nothing other before it, then Absolute Agnosticism is the only rational possible choice (the second is the Amalgam Theory: Jesus being Jesus ben Saphat; the third is the traditional historicist view).

At any case, it is sufficient to find in the Vridar's post all the occurrences of 'Gospel':

So a new thought, a new contrast – rather a new assumption – a given assumption – the assumption that in the election of the weak and foolish, the wisdom of God is revealed!

But an original creator would first have to prove that divine wisdom is demonstrated in this calling. For our author, however, the assumption, the proof, is given – but where? To the gospel text that the author of the Gospel of Luke used and for whose use by the author of our letter we will provide numerous and the most convincing evidence.

But let us accept the author’s appeal to a statement for which he would have had to provide proof, and let us instead receive as a gift the consequential evidence for his use of a gospel text!


Furthermore, what is the antithesis between the treatment the apostle receives and his behavior towards his persecutors in the same verse? “When we are cursed, we bless,” etc. It does not belong in a context that deals purely and solely with the persecutions and sufferings that the apostle and his peers experience – it is again a reminiscence, taken from a foreign context, a free adaptation of the gospel commandment according to which (Luke 6:28) the curse of people should be repaid with blessing. The more inappropriate this self-praise is in the present context, the stronger it testifies that the author had already been given a gospel with that commandment of the Lord.


In short, the hierarchy already existed when the author wrote, and it sought after the titles of its authority against the resistance of the laity – there were already multiple Gospels, for the scripture that commanded blessing as a weapon against curse was not the original Gospel – and there was already, as the author immediately proves, a norm of catholicity.


The prohibition of the pagan jurisdiction was already established as a statute when the author attempted to theoretically justify it, and he immediately juxtaposed essentially different commandments with it as proof that he did not create independently, but rather compiled given material (verse 7). The author took the punishing remark, phrased as a question, about the use of pagan jurisdiction from the same gospel text which the author of the Gospel of Luke used to borrow the isolated question in chapter 12, verse 57: “And why do you not judge for yourselves what is right?”


To put it in a reasonable way, the situation is as follows: the author knows the absolute prohibition of the original gospel, but he could not hold onto it strictly, as he wanted to give rules for real life, which often contradicted it – but he also did not yet know the casuistry that explicitly specifies the case in which the absoluteness of the prohibition should yield, as in the Gospel of Matthew.

If he then explicitly states that he has no command of the Lord for his exaltation of celibate life (v. 25), the result just obtained is confirmed: he knew neither the Gospel of Matthew nor the Gospel source from which its author (in Matthew 19:10-12) took the praise of those who have renounced marriage.


We highlight one argument from his reasoning because it is again important for determining his relationship to the Gospels.

In the context where he presents marriage as unnecessary and superfluous due to the brevity of time remaining until the final crisis (v. 29-31), he adds a warning that those who have wives should live as if they had none, and he immediately extends this statement to everyone, advising those who weep to live as if they were not weeping, those who rejoice as if they were not rejoicing, and those who buy as if they had no possessions.

Having wives, rejoicing, and buying are positive determinations and pleasures, which are all valid in their place when it comes to renunciation and abstaining. Crying, on the other hand, does not belong here, it is not introduced by anything in context and could not have occurred to anyone who originally creates and follows a driving interest – it has come to the author by chance, from outside, through foreign force – but from where? From those beatitudes that the author of the Gospel of Luke has taken from the same source text as our author.


Finally, any doubt that this theory about the legitimacy of the claims of the clergy could belong to a time other than the second century is dispelled by the application appended to the last argument (verse 14), that the Lord also decreed that those who proclaim the Gospel should live by the Gospel. The author knows of this provision of the Lord from the instruction He gave the Twelve at the first sending out (Mark 6:6 and Luke 10:7), only here the instruction originally intended for the Twelve is transformed into an instruction for the seventy.


On the other hand, we can add a new detail to our discovery concerning the author’s relationship with the gospel accounts. There is nothing more natural than the instruction regarding the pagan feast in verse 27, “Eat anything sold in the meat market,” while the instruction in Luke 10:8 to the seventy disciples, “Eat what is set before you,” interrupts the flow of thought, is unnecessary repetition since the subject was already fully addressed in verse 7, and, if, as is highly likely, it also refers to the question of meat sacrificed to idols, this reference is not emphasized and, in itself, is quite elegant and, in the present context, is an ostentatious addition.


In short, only in the first Corinthians letter is this passage a natural and original part of the whole. However, Luke, who had the same Gospel text in mind as the author of this letter, borrowed that phrase for his instruction of the Seventy.


If the main questions that needed to be asked have been resolved so securely that there can be no doubt about the composition of our letter based on the gospel source text that underlies Luke’s gospel, which itself is already a later version of the original gospel, it would be completely pointless for us to go into detail about the discussion of women’s head coverings (verses 2-16) and to show the same labored and contrived character of our author’s presentation that is now firmly established as the consistent characteristic of his exposition.


He now describes the event in the life of Jesus on which the institution he is discussing is based – he says (v. 23) that he received it from the Lord, but the truth of the matter is that he is simply copying it from that Gospel source, which Luke has combined with the accounts of his other sources in a clumsy way.*)

*) Hence, the disruptive repetitions in Luke’s account.



One thing was certainly already firmly established when the author wrote – very firmly! namely, the report of the appearances of the risen one, to which he later refers to let the denial of the resurrection of the believers shatter against the actual resurrection of the Lord – this report was already given to him: in that gospel that the author of this letter used together with him from the original source of the present Luke Gospel. Our long-established discovery is now receiving new confirmation, namely that when the author of this letter makes the specific statement that the risen one first appeared to Peter, only in the Gospel of Luke (24:34) is this appearance assumed as the first in a very confusing way, but not described itself. This confusion proves that the original Luke used a foreign text – but he used it briefly. On the other hand, our author has reproduced the assumption of this text in a simple positivity, and only one thing has not succeeded for him – namely, to integrate the reference to something known, established, into a harmonious relationship with his Corinthians.

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Re: Bruno Bauer: 1 Corinthians is based on the Earliest Gospel

Post by mlinssen »

Giuseppe wrote: Sun Apr 23, 2023 7:26 am
Irish1975 wrote: Sun Apr 23, 2023 6:10 am (which Bauer seems to think is mostly fraudulent)
the fraud is always possible, but I follow Richard Carrier when he says that if everything is based on a story and nothing other before it, then Absolute Agnosticism is the only rational possible choice (the second is the Amalgam Theory: Jesus being Jesus ben Saphat; the third is the traditional historicist view).

At any case, it is sufficient to find in the Vridar's post all the occurrences of 'Gospel':

So a new thought, a new contrast – rather a new assumption – a given assumption – the assumption that in the election of the weak and foolish, the wisdom of God is revealed!

But an original creator would first have to prove that divine wisdom is demonstrated in this calling. For our author, however, the assumption, the proof, is given – but where? To the gospel text that the author of the Gospel of Luke used and for whose use by the author of our letter we will provide numerous and the most convincing evidence.

But let us accept the author’s appeal to a statement for which he would have had to provide proof, and let us instead receive as a gift the consequential evidence for his use of a gospel text!


Furthermore, what is the antithesis between the treatment the apostle receives and his behavior towards his persecutors in the same verse? “When we are cursed, we bless,” etc. It does not belong in a context that deals purely and solely with the persecutions and sufferings that the apostle and his peers experience – it is again a reminiscence, taken from a foreign context, a free adaptation of the gospel commandment according to which (Luke 6:28) the curse of people should be repaid with blessing. The more inappropriate this self-praise is in the present context, the stronger it testifies that the author had already been given a gospel with that commandment of the Lord.


68. said IS : yourselves some(PL) Fortunate Whenever if they "should" hate you(PL) and they make-be Persecute [dop] you(PL) and they will fall not to Place in the place have they Persecute [dop] you(PL) upper-part of heart/mind he

69. said IS some(PL) Fortunate are these-ones have they Persecute [dop] they upper-part in their heart/mind they-who therein are have know the father in a(n) truth some(PL) Fortunate they-who being-hungry So-that they will make-satisfied [dop] the(F) belly of he-who desire


In short, the hierarchy already existed when the author wrote, and it sought after the titles of its authority against the resistance of the laity – there were already multiple Gospels, for the scripture that commanded blessing as a weapon against curse was not the original Gospel – and there was already, as the author immediately proves, a norm of catholicity.


The prohibition of the pagan jurisdiction was already established as a statute when the author attempted to theoretically justify it, and he immediately juxtaposed essentially different commandments with it as proof that he did not create independently, but rather compiled given material (verse 7). The author took the punishing remark, phrased as a question, about the use of pagan jurisdiction from the same gospel text which the author of the Gospel of Luke used to borrow the isolated question in chapter 12, verse 57: “And why do you not judge for yourselves what is right?”

Luke 12:54 And also He was saying to the crowds, “When you see a cloud rising up from the west, immediately you say, ‘A shower is coming,’ and so it happens.
55 And when a south wind is blowing, you say, ‘There will be heat,’ and it happens.
56 Hypocrites! You know how to discern the appearance of the earth and of the sky, but how do you not know to discern this time?
57 And why do you not even judge for yourselves what is right?
58 For as you are going with your adversary before a magistrate, give earnestness to be set free from him in the way, lest he should drag you away to the judge, and the judge will deliver you to the officer, and the officer will cast you into prison.
59 I say to you, you shall never come out from there until you shall have paid even the last lepton.”

91. said they to he : say it to us : you who? So-that will make-be Believe [dop] you(SG) said he to they : you(PL) make-be Tempt [dop] the face of the(F) heaven with the earth and he-who of your(SG.PL) presence outward did-not you(PL) know he and this Time you(PL) know not [dop] make-be Tempt [dop] he


To put it in a reasonable way, the situation is as follows: the author knows the absolute prohibition of the original gospel, but he could not hold onto it strictly, as he wanted to give rules for real life, which often contradicted it – but he also did not yet know the casuistry that explicitly specifies the case in which the absoluteness of the prohibition should yield, as in the Gospel of Matthew.

If he then explicitly states that he has no command of the Lord for his exaltation of celibate life (v. 25), the result just obtained is confirmed: he knew neither the Gospel of Matthew nor the Gospel source from which its author (in Matthew 19:10-12) took the praise of those who have renounced marriage.


We highlight one argument from his reasoning because it is again important for determining his relationship to the Gospels.

In the context where he presents marriage as unnecessary and superfluous due to the brevity of time remaining until the final crisis (v. 29-31), he adds a warning that those who have wives should live as if they had none, and he immediately extends this statement to everyone, advising those who weep to live as if they were not weeping, those who rejoice as if they were not rejoicing, and those who buy as if they had no possessions.

Having wives, rejoicing, and buying are positive determinations and pleasures, which are all valid in their place when it comes to renunciation and abstaining. Crying, on the other hand, does not belong here, it is not introduced by anything in context and could not have occurred to anyone who originally creates and follows a driving interest – it has come to the author by chance, from outside, through foreign force – but from where? From those beatitudes that the author of the Gospel of Luke has taken from the same source text as our author.


Finally, any doubt that this theory about the legitimacy of the claims of the clergy could belong to a time other than the second century is dispelled by the application appended to the last argument (verse 14), that the Lord also decreed that those who proclaim the Gospel should live by the Gospel. The author knows of this provision of the Lord from the instruction He gave the Twelve at the first sending out (Mark 6:6 and Luke 10:7), only here the instruction originally intended for the Twelve is transformed into an instruction for the seventy.


On the other hand, we can add a new detail to our discovery concerning the author’s relationship with the gospel accounts. There is nothing more natural than the instruction regarding the pagan feast in verse 27, “Eat anything sold in the meat market,” while the instruction in Luke 10:8 to the seventy disciples, “Eat what is set before you,” interrupts the flow of thought, is unnecessary repetition since the subject was already fully addressed in verse 7, and, if, as is highly likely, it also refers to the question of meat sacrificed to idols, this reference is not emphasized and, in itself, is quite elegant and, in the present context, is an ostentatious addition.


14. IS said to them: if you should Fast, you will beget to you a sin; and if you should pray, they will Condemn you; and if you should give Alms, you will make be a Bad one of your Spirits. And if you should go inward to a certain earth and you walk in the Lands, if they should Accept you; he who they will place him at you: eat him. They who are sick of their heart/mind, Heal them. He who will go Indeed inward in your mouth he will defile you not, Rather he who is coming from your mouth; he is he who will defile you.

As always I translate masculine references by default with who, not which

In short, only in the first Corinthians letter is this passage a natural and original part of the whole. However, Luke, who had the same Gospel text in mind as the author of this letter, borrowed that phrase for his instruction of the Seventy.


If the main questions that needed to be asked have been resolved so securely that there can be no doubt about the composition of our letter based on the gospel source text that underlies Luke’s gospel, which itself is already a later version of the original gospel, it would be completely pointless for us to go into detail about the discussion of women’s head coverings (verses 2-16) and to show the same labored and contrived character of our author’s presentation that is now firmly established as the consistent characteristic of his exposition.


He now describes the event in the life of Jesus on which the institution he is discussing is based – he says (v. 23) that he received it from the Lord, but the truth of the matter is that he is simply copying it from that Gospel source, which Luke has combined with the accounts of his other sources in a clumsy way.*)

*) Hence, the disruptive repetitions in Luke’s account.



One thing was certainly already firmly established when the author wrote – very firmly! namely, the report of the appearances of the risen one, to which he later refers to let the denial of the resurrection of the believers shatter against the actual resurrection of the Lord – this report was already given to him: in that gospel that the author of this letter used together with him from the original source of the present Luke Gospel. Our long-established discovery is now receiving new confirmation, namely that when the author of this letter makes the specific statement that the risen one first appeared to Peter, only in the Gospel of Luke (24:34) is this appearance assumed as the first in a very confusing way, but not described itself. This confusion proves that the original Luke used a foreign text – but he used it briefly. On the other hand, our author has reproduced the assumption of this text in a simple positivity, and only one thing has not succeeded for him – namely, to integrate the reference to something known, established, into a harmonious relationship with his Corinthians.

Never forget that there's always Thomas in between any two texts where applicable.
Don't make the same mistake that the alleged Marcion experts have made, with Klinghardt stating the number of 5, Bilby the number of 8, and BeDuhn the number of 19 ( respectively 15) - with regards to indicating parallels between Luke and Thomas (of which there are 61) as well as *Ev and Thomas (of which there are 57)

Other than that, naturally the epistles come after the gospels
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