(The Oldest Gospel and the Formation of the Canonical Gospels, p. 301, my bold)
What was the theological reason for Mark contradicting so blatantly the Jesus's words:
(Mark 14:48-49)
...when the "swords and clubs" were really useful to punish the violence by at least a disciple of Jesus
(Mark 14:47)
Note the difference:
- in *Ev, 'swords and clubs' are said not necessary by Jesus, and de facto they were not necessary at all.
- in Mark, 'swords and clubs' are said not necessary by Jesus,contra factum that only a verse before, they had to be useful to stop a violent disciple of Jesus.
- A possible reason is that in *Ev the contrast is deliberately between the misunderstanding of the people who wanted to arrest Jesus with 'swords and clubs' and the real identity of Jesus: they believe him a rebel Messiah contra factum that Jesus is not the Jewish Messiah.
- Embarrassed by this fact, Mark introduced the violent incident of the mutilated ear: in this way he has introduced the same misunderstanding about the real identity of Jesus among the same disciples of Jesus. The violent disciple worked with violence on the slave's ear because he believed that his leader Jesus was the Jewish Messiah.