Mark’s Use of Psalm 22 --- A Davidic Jesus?

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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Re: Mark’s Use of Psalm 22 --- A Davidic Jesus?

Post by davidmartin »

Why did the common people hear him gladly? I don't understand that part. Is this something that can be extracted explicitly from Mark?
the Jesus of the gospels is apparently popular with the people so it fits the expected pattern
there is just a general popularity surrounding him. basically due to wise answers and wisdom
to the problem, the 'bible school' answer is Jesus hints the Messiah is way, way higher than just a descendant of David
so they suggest Jesus refers to himself. But. The passage mentions a spiritual interpretation of the Torah, the kingdom, the Holy Spirit and then moves on to widows which has a wisdom allusion maybe. it looks like Jesus is saying the Messiah is the Spirit/Wisdom not a man (which would agree with some parts of the epistles where Christ is equated to wisdom)
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Re: Mark’s Use of Psalm 22

Post by rgprice »

GakuseiDon wrote: Fri Feb 09, 2024 3:49 pm So why do you all on this board think "the common people heard him gladly"?
I think its pretty straight forward. The common people are being juxtaposed against the scribes and leaders. The "common people" accepted his answer but the scribes and leaders don't.
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