Dennis MacDonald's claim that Homeric mimesis goes against even the Marcionite priority over Luke

[Giuseppe]

I would invite the Admin to change the title of this thread to "Is John the Baptist doubting/offended or not in Matthew 11:2?"

...since I would like to talk more diffusely in this thread about the recent book by MacDonald.

He writes:

Interpreters who grant Synoptic imitations of Homer, must also accept the compositional chronology: Mark --> Luke-Acts --> Marcion's Evangelion.

(Must the Synoptics Remain a Problem?, p. 12)

There is only an argument covering only a page.

Basically, MacDonald sees an enormous contradiction in both Mark and canonical Luke expanding sistematically the Homeric mimesis found already in *Ev (but only occasionally).

I don't understand the argument in the exact sense of the verb "understand". I would be grateful to someone who can explain me the point. I can show the screenshot of the pages of interest (half of p.10, the entire p. 11 and half of p. 12).

[Giuseppe]

This is the argument quoted fully. As already asked: if you understand it, can you resume it in more understandable terms?