Origen 1, Scholars 0

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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Ken Olson
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Re: Origen 1, Scholars 0

Post by Ken Olson »

Back on May 11, Peter Kirby wrote:
Remember, from the other thread, that this is in accordance with a tradition that James was entering the temple during the Jewish revolt. Which is not at all the same thing as saying that the destruction of Jerusalem was because of the death of James.

Not least because, once the war/revolt was set in motion, the siege by the Romans was completely assured. And Hegesippus mentions thesiege of Vespasian as following after the death of James--he does not mention the destruction of Jerusalem as happening on account ofthe death of James. Recall that 'Hegesippus' is writing in 5 books. Temporal sequence is going to be part of his narrative, so we shouldn't interpret this last sentence as the 'conclusion' of this passage but rather as the introduction to additional discussion of the Jewish war, which discussion must have been already underway by the time it came to discuss James and his death (which was in the middle of the Jewish war, since the siege of Jerusalem by Vespasian was not the first development of that war, and since James was acting in the temple, which would not have been possible before Ananus and the other high priests / former high priests were dead or driven out of the city).

In short, not only have we failed to read Josephus/Origen very closely, we have also failed to read Hegesippus closely.... I really do believe that this whole misunderstanding of the situation here (by far too many scholars to be excusable) has been motivated primarily by shoddy "reasoning from excerpts" (considered crudely and in isolation) and not a close study of the authors involved, their motivations, and the context of these excerpts.
Peter,

There is much food for thought here, but I will have to limit my response to dealing with Hegesippus. I appreciate the desire to understand texts on their own terms and not to read them through the lens of later interpreters, whether either ancient or modern. At the same time, I think those later interpreters often provide insights that are very useful in understanding the texts. In this particular case, I think your reading of the passage from Hegesippus does not do a good job of accounting for the data (I acknowledge that even if I am right about that, that would not by itself discredit your understanding of Origen’s possible interpretation of Antiquities 20).

I take Hegesippus to be saying that Vespasian’s siege of the city was not “inevitable” as you put it, nor was it a “development of the war”. It was the result (“fruit”) of the Jerusalemites’ killing of James. Prior to that event, the righteous one’s intercessory prayer in the sanctuary, kneeling and asking for forgiveness for the people, had held back God’s judgment on Jerusalem. By killing James, the Jews and Scribes and Pharisees removed “the rampart of the people” that was protecting them. I think that is by far the most plausible way to understand the explicit fulfillment citation of LXX Isaiah 3.10, “Let us take the just man for he is unprofitable to us. Yet they shall eat the fruit of their works.” What do you take “the fruit of their works” to be? I think the quotation may well be a metaleptic reference to the larger context of Isaiah 3 on God’s punishment of Jerusalem and Judah. Possibly the mention of the “Rechabim to whom the prophet Jeremiah bore witness” is a metaleptic reference to Jermiah 35 (especially v. 17) as well.

So I’m not persuaded by your argument that “And immediately Vespasian besieged them” actually belongs to the following section in Hegesippus, not only because it relies on a conjecture about what might have been in a lost source, but also because it does not fit well with the internal logic of the story, and the words kai euthus (“and straightaway,” well known from its frequent use in Mark’s Gospel) are unlikely to begin an entirely new pericope but instead tie what follows them closely with what precedes them. James’ killers had to eat the fruits of their works.

Similarly, while I’m sure you realize the story is unrealistic in many of its aspects, and much of it is composed of reworked scriptural passages (Isaiah, Jeremiah, the trial and death of Jesus and the stoning of Stephen in Acts 7, the door from John 10; see the marginal notations in the Loeb edition) I think you overestimate the extent to which Hegesippus is writing accurate or even realistic history. James, unrealistically, seems to have taken over the role of the High Priest (right down to the linen vestments) who alone enters the Holy of Holies to make atonement for the sins of the people only on Yom Kippur, the Day of Atonement (Leviticus 16.29-34). James goes into the sanctuary much more often, presumably because the author thinks the people have much greater sin that needs forgiving.

The passage about James’ knees becoming as hard as a camel’s is meant to emphasize that James has been doing this for quite a while. It is not some recent development brought on by the disruptions of the war. There are no disruptions from the war apparent in the text. There are still priests in Jerusalem (2.23.7) as well as Scribes and Pharisees and “Jews” and their big problem in the text is not that they are at war with Rome, but that so many people are going astray and following Jesus because of the preaching of James. So, with a remarkable lack of foresight, they ask the same James to address the people at Passover, for which “all the tribes” (how many tribes is that?) and the Gentiles have been able to gather. They mistakenly hope that James, contrary to his known record, will restrain the people from accepting Jesus as the Christ, and they acknowledge that they and all the people are, for some reason, bound to obey James. This is a Christian legend, and trying to interpret it by putting it in the context of historical data about the Jewish War known from other sources is a mistake.

The historical/chronological problem that the story in Hegesippus is intended to resolve from its own Christian perspective is the theological issue of divine causality: why did God wait forty years to punish the Jews for killing Christ? The answer is: because of the presence of James the Righteous One in the city, constantly praying for forgiveness for the people. God’s punishment came only after the people did away with James. James’ death is the trigger event for the punishment of Jerusalem, but the underlying cause is the continued rejection God’s messengers culminating in the killing of Jesus. (I realize that this would mean that, on my theory that Origen knows this story, whether from Hegesippus or another source, he’s gotten it slightly wrong). I am indebted to John Painter (Just James 1e 1999, 143-144), who notes that Eusebius had come up with this explanation:
But it would be right to mention, too, certain facts which bring home the beneficence of all gracious providence, which for forty years after their crime against Christ delayed their destruction. All that times most of the apostles, including James himself, the first bishop of Jerusalem, known as the Lord’s brother, were still alive, and be remaining in the city furnished the place with an impregnable bulwark. [Eusebius HE 3.7.7-9]
I would go beyond Painter here and suggest that the theological justification for the delay in punishing Jerusalem for killing the Christ of God is already there in the story Hegesippus relates, and even that it is very plausibly the reason that James came to be called “the Righteous One” in the second century (despite Hegesippus’ claim that James was known as the Righteous by all from the Savior’s time, James is never called that in the New Testament). I am probably more aware than most of the effect that Eusebius can have on later interpretation. But while he often reads things in his sources that are not there, I also think sometimes he gets things right.

Best,

Ken
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Re: Origen 1, Scholars 0

Post by Peter Kirby »

Ken Olson wrote: I take Hegesippus to be saying that Vespasian’s siege of the city was not “inevitable” as you put it, nor was it a “development of the war”. It was the result (“fruit”) of the Jerusalemites’ killing of James. Prior to that event, the righteous one’s intercessory prayer in the sanctuary, kneeling and asking for forgiveness for the people, had held back God’s judgment on Jerusalem. By killing James, the Jews and Scribes and Pharisees removed “the rampart of the people” that was protecting them. I think that is by far the most plausible way to understand the explicit fulfillment citation of LXX Isaiah 3.10, “Let us take the just man for he is unprofitable to us. Yet they shall eat the fruit of their works.” What do you take “the fruit of their works” to be? I think the quotation may well be a metaleptic reference to the larger context of Isaiah 3 on God’s punishment of Jerusalem and Judah. Possibly the mention of the “Rechabim to whom the prophet Jeremiah bore witness” is a metaleptic reference to Jermiah 35 (especially v. 17) as well.

So I’m not persuaded by your argument that “And immediately Vespasian besieged them” actually belongs to the following section in Hegesippus, not only because it relies on a conjecture about what might have been in a lost source, but also because it does not fit well with the internal logic of the story, and the words kai euthus (“and straightaway,” well known from its frequent use in Mark’s Gospel) are unlikely to begin an entirely new pericope but instead tie what follows them closely with what precedes them. James’ killers had to eat the fruits of their works.

Similarly, while I’m sure you realize the story is unrealistic in many of its aspects, and much of it is composed of reworked scriptural passages (Isaiah, Jeremiah, the trial and death of Jesus and the stoning of Stephen in Acts 7, the door from John 10; see the marginal notations in the Loeb edition) I think you overestimate the extent to which Hegesippus is writing accurate or even realistic history. James, unrealistically, seems to have taken over the role of the High Priest (right down to the linen vestments) who alone enters the Holy of Holies to make atonement for the sins of the people only on Yom Kippur, the Day of Atonement (Leviticus 16.29-34). James goes into the sanctuary much more often, presumably because the author thinks the people have much greater sin that needs forgiving.

The passage about James’ knees becoming as hard as a camel’s is meant to emphasize that James has been doing this for quite a while. It is not some recent development brought on by the disruptions of the war. There are no disruptions from the war apparent in the text. There are still priests in Jerusalem (2.23.7) as well as Scribes and Pharisees and “Jews” and their big problem in the text is not that they are at war with Rome, but that so many people are going astray and following Jesus because of the preaching of James. So, with a remarkable lack of foresight, they ask the same James to address the people at Passover, for which “all the tribes” (how many tribes is that?) and the Gentiles have been able to gather. They mistakenly hope that James, contrary to his known record, will restrain the people from accepting Jesus as the Christ, and they acknowledge that they and all the people are, for some reason, bound to obey James. This is a Christian legend, and trying to interpret it by putting it in the context of historical data about the Jewish War known from other sources is a mistake.

The historical/chronological problem that the story in Hegesippus is intended to resolve from its own Christian perspective is the theological issue of divine causality: why did God wait forty years to punish the Jews for killing Christ? The answer is: because of the presence of James the Righteous One in the city, constantly praying for forgiveness for the people. God’s punishment came only after the people did away with James. James’ death is the trigger event for the punishment of Jerusalem, but the underlying cause is the continued rejection God’s messengers culminating in the killing of Jesus. (I realize that this would mean that, on my theory that Origen knows this story, whether from Hegesippus or another source, he’s gotten it slightly wrong). I am indebted to John Painter (Just James 1e 1999, 143-144), who notes that Eusebius had come up with this explanation:
But it would be right to mention, too, certain facts which bring home the beneficence of all gracious providence, which for forty years after their crime against Christ delayed their destruction. All that times most of the apostles, including James himself, the first bishop of Jerusalem, known as the Lord’s brother, were still alive, and be remaining in the city furnished the place with an impregnable bulwark. [Eusebius HE 3.7.7-9]
I would go beyond Painter here and suggest that the theological justification for the delay in punishing Jerusalem for killing the Christ of God is already there in the story Hegesippus relates, and even that it is very plausibly the reason that James came to be called “the Righteous One” in the second century (despite Hegesippus’ claim that James was known as the Righteous by all from the Savior’s time, James is never called that in the New Testament). I am probably more aware than most of the effect that Eusebius can have on later interpretation. But while he often reads things in his sources that are not there, I also think sometimes he gets things right.
I accept this argument (minus the gray bits). I noticed the bolded quotations before (and potential strangeness for what exactly I was saying), and Painter's suggestion provides an explanation for it that is fully acceptable to me (of which I was not before aware).

In the context of the O.P., though, it still looks like (as an explanation for this detail in Origen) we have to choose between Origen somewhat misreading Josephus or somewhat misreading Hegesippus. That is, what Origen says in this matter (about the punishment of the Jews) isn't exactly and actually stated by either (and I'm not just referring to the phrasing of "the brother of Jesus called Christ").

In any case, thank you for spelling this all out. Much appreciated.
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Re: Origen 1, Scholars 0

Post by Peter Kirby »

Ken Olson wrote:I am indebted to John Painter (Just James 1e 1999, 143-144), who notes that Eusebius had come up with this explanation:
But it would be right to mention, too, certain facts which bring home the beneficence of all gracious providence, which for forty years after their crime against Christ delayed their destruction. All that times most of the apostles, including James himself, the first bishop of Jerusalem, known as the Lord’s brother, were still alive, and be remaining in the city furnished the place with an impregnable bulwark. [Eusebius HE 3.7.7-9]
I would go beyond Painter here and suggest that the theological justification for the delay in punishing Jerusalem for killing the Christ of God is already there in the story Hegesippus relates, and even that it is very plausibly the reason that James came to be called “the Righteous One” in the second century (despite Hegesippus’ claim that James was known as the Righteous by all from the Savior’s time, James is never called that in the New Testament).
Thanks for this. I put this quotation in the list here:

viewtopic.php?f=3&t=1540&p=35251#p35251
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Re: Origen 1, Scholars 0

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Ken Olson wrote: I would go beyond Painter here and suggest that the theological justification for the delay in punishing Jerusalem for killing the Christ of God is already there in the story Hegesippus relates, and even that it is very plausibly the reason that James came to be called “the Righteous One” in the second century (despite Hegesippus’ claim that James was known as the Righteous by all from the Savior’s time, James is never called that in the New Testament). I am probably more aware than most of the effect that Eusebius can have on later interpretation. But while he often reads things in his sources that are not there, I also think sometimes he gets things right.
Could the reason James came to be called "the Righteous One" be a conflation of stories that have been preserved on the Dead Seas Scrolls?

Do we know if James was called "the Just" for a particular reason?

Are we dealing with more than one James?
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Re: Origen 1, Scholars 0

Post by DCHindley »

MrMacSon wrote:
Ken Olson wrote: I would go beyond Painter here and suggest that the theological justification for the delay in punishing Jerusalem for killing the Christ of God is already there in the story Hegesippus relates, and even that it is very plausibly the reason that James came to be called “the Righteous One” in the second century (despite Hegesippus’ claim that James was known as the Righteous by all from the Savior’s time, James is never called that in the New Testament). ...
Could the reason James came to be called "the Righteous One" be a conflation of stories that have been preserved on the Dead Seas Scrolls?

Do we know if James was called "the Just" for a particular reason?

Are we dealing with more than one James?
We only know that Hegesippus said James was known as "the Just (one)" = "the Righteous (one)", and that Eusebius agreed with this assessment. "Just/Righteous" means someone who does the right things, and presumably "right" means performing the commandments of God correctly. It is actually a fairly relative thing if you think about it. In War book 4 Josephus calls Ananus "just", but in Ant 20:200 he is a monster, so obviously Josephus' own opinion of Ananus changed from the writing of War (around 75 CE) and the writing of Ant 20 (about 95 CE). I'm sure there are other examples to be found.

Could this image of a super righteous man whose very presence delayed God's vengeance on a disobedient people be gleened from the things that DSS writers said about the Just teacher? Sure. I refer you to Robert Eisenman who takes great pains to compare them.

Could Hegesippus have been wrong that the James he calls Just was indeed the brother of the Lord (Jesus)? Sure. The Christians who wrote the NT books and other early Christian literature seemed to have only the haziest idea of the earliest history of the movement, and IMHO, a lot of the history the do relate is pure conjecture (guessing) on their part.

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Re: Origen 1, Scholars 0

Post by MrMacSon »

re your recent post on the "What do we know about EC writers?" thread

Hegesippus [cf. via Eusebius, Church History, 3.11.1-12.1]
(CF-E EH3 11:1) 11:1 After the martyrdom of James and the conquest of Jerusalem which immediately followed, it is said that those of the apostles and disciples of the Lord that were still living came together from all directions with those that were related to the Lord according to the flesh (for the majority of them also were still alive) to take counsel as to who was worthy to succeed James. They all with one consent pronounced Symeon, the son of Clopas, of whom the Gospel also makes mention; to be worthy of the episcopal throne of that parish. He was a cousin, as they say, of the Saviour. For Hegesippus records that Clopas was a brother of Joseph.

http://www.earlywritings.com/forum/view ... 484#p35484
cf what the Catholic Encyclopedia says
4. James, the son of Mary, brother of Joseph (or Joses) — Mark 15:40 (where he is called ò mikros "the little", not the "less", as in the DV, nor the "lesser"); Matthew 27:56. Probably the son of Cleophas or Clopas (John 19:25) where "Maria Cleophæ" is generally translated "Mary the wife of Cleophas", as married women are commonly distinguished by the addition of their husband's name.

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/08280a.htm
It seems things were being conflated or elaborated from the 2nd C.
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Re: Origen 1, Scholars 0

Post by DCHindley »

Eusebius cites Hegesippus, but it is hard to tell when he is quoting verbatim (if he is), or paraphrasing Heg's actual words, or adding his own opinion to the words he does cite/paraphrase. In Eusebius' day, most folks didn't want Jesus to have physical relatives, just half brothers & sisters, in order to be able to treat his mother Mary as a perpetual virgin. Julius Africanus (late 2nd but more likely early 3rd century CE), I think, came up with that solution.

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Re: Origen 1, Scholars 0

Post by gryan »

Ken Olson wrote: Fri May 15, 2015 5:49 am
I take Hegesippus to be saying that Vespasian’s siege of the city was not “inevitable” as you put it, nor was it a “development of the war”. It was the result (“fruit”) of the Jerusalemites’ killing of James. Prior to that event, the righteous one’s intercessory prayer in the sanctuary, kneeling and asking for forgiveness for the people, had held back God’s judgment on Jerusalem. By killing James, the Jews and Scribes and Pharisees removed “the rampart of the people” that was protecting them. I think that is by far the most plausible way to understand the explicit fulfillment citation of LXX Isaiah 3.10, “Let us take the just man for he is unprofitable to us. Yet they shall eat the fruit of their works.” What do you take “the fruit of their works” to be? I think the quotation may well be a metaleptic reference to the larger context of Isaiah 3 on God’s punishment of Jerusalem and Judah. Possibly the mention of the “Rechabim to whom the prophet Jeremiah bore witness” is a metaleptic reference to Jermiah 35 (especially v. 17) as well.

So I’m not persuaded by your argument that “And immediately Vespasian besieged them” actually belongs to the following section in Hegesippus, not only because it relies on a conjecture about what might have been in a lost source, but also because it does not fit well with the internal logic of the story, and the words kai euthus (“and straightaway,” well known from its frequent use in Mark’s Gospel) are unlikely to begin an entirely new pericope but instead tie what follows them closely with what precedes them. James’ killers had to eat the fruits of their works.

Similarly, while I’m sure you realize the story is unrealistic in many of its aspects, and much of it is composed of reworked scriptural passages (Isaiah, Jeremiah, the trial and death of Jesus and the stoning of Stephen in Acts 7, the door from John 10; see the marginal notations in the Loeb edition) I think you overestimate the extent to which Hegesippus is writing accurate or even realistic history. James, unrealistically, seems to have taken over the role of the High Priest (right down to the linen vestments) who alone enters the Holy of Holies to make atonement for the sins of the people only on Yom Kippur, the Day of Atonement (Leviticus 16.29-34). James goes into the sanctuary much more often, presumably because the author thinks the people have much greater sin that needs forgiving.

The passage about James’ knees becoming as hard as a camel’s is meant to emphasize that James has been doing this for quite a while. It is not some recent development brought on by the disruptions of the war. There are no disruptions from the war apparent in the text. There are still priests in Jerusalem (2.23.7) as well as Scribes and Pharisees and “Jews” and their big problem in the text is not that they are at war with Rome, but that so many people are going astray and following Jesus because of the preaching of James. So, with a remarkable lack of foresight, they ask the same James to address the people at Passover, for which “all the tribes” (how many tribes is that?) and the Gentiles have been able to gather. They mistakenly hope that James, contrary to his known record, will restrain the people from accepting Jesus as the Christ, and they acknowledge that they and all the people are, for some reason, bound to obey James. This is a Christian legend, and trying to interpret it by putting it in the context of historical data about the Jewish War known from other sources is a mistake.

The historical/chronological problem that the story in Hegesippus is intended to resolve from its own Christian perspective is the theological issue of divine causality: why did God wait forty years to punish the Jews for killing Christ? The answer is: because of the presence of James the Righteous One in the city, constantly praying for forgiveness for the people. God’s punishment came only after the people did away with James. James’ death is the trigger event for the punishment of Jerusalem, but the underlying cause is the continued rejection God’s messengers culminating in the killing of Jesus. (I realize that this would mean that, on my theory that Origen knows this story, whether from Hegesippus or another source, he’s gotten it slightly wrong). I am indebted to John Painter (Just James 1e 1999, 143-144), who notes that Eusebius had come up with this explanation:
But it would be right to mention, too, certain facts which bring home the beneficence of all gracious providence, which for forty years after their crime against Christ delayed their destruction. All that times most of the apostles, including James himself, the first bishop of Jerusalem, known as the Lord’s brother, were still alive, and be remaining in the city furnished the place with an impregnable bulwark. [Eusebius HE 3.7.7-9]
I would go beyond Painter here and suggest that the theological justification for the delay in punishing Jerusalem for killing the Christ of God is already there in the story Hegesippus relates, and even that it is very plausibly the reason that James came to be called “the Righteous One” in the second century (despite Hegesippus’ claim that James was known as the Righteous by all from the Savior’s time, James is never called that in the New Testament). I am probably more aware than most of the effect that Eusebius can have on later interpretation. But while he often reads things in his sources that are not there, I also think sometimes he gets things right.
I am persuaded my this whole argument insofar as it relates to Hegesipps' claims, but I don't think Hegesippus coined the phrase "James the Just."

I think the phrase "James the Just" was invented by readers of Galatians and Mark in the time of the composition of gThomas and Gospel of the Hebrews and I think it referred to James, son of Alphaeus (of 1 Cor 15 and Gal 2:9 and Mark 16:1) to distinguish him from "James the less" (of gMark 15:40/"the Lord's brother" of Galatians 1:19 and 1:12).

I think the innovation/misconstrual of Hegesippus was to apply the name "James the Just" to "the Lord's brother" of Galatians/Mark 6:3, i.e. the blood brother of Jesus. I think Hegesippus did this under the influence of 1) Acts of the Apostles which presented the 12 as being "in one accord" with Jesus' mother (Mary) and brothers (unnamed in all of Luke-Acts) and 2) gMatt 27:56 --"Mary the mother of James and Joseph"--which opened the possibility of reading the simple name of James as a reference to the blood brother of Jesus named James and 3) 1 Cor. 15 with "James" misinterpreted as a reference to the blood brother of Jesus (rather than the son of Alphaeus, which better suits the context of Paul's relationship with the recognized pillars of Gal 2:9 "James and Cephas" acting in one accord.)

None of this is to deny that "James the Lord's brother"/the blood brother of Jesus was a known figure in Jerusalem. It is only to claim that Paul's supporter in Gal 2:9 was another James--the son of Alphaeus-- who had a background more similar to Cephas/Peter, and who tried to play a mediating role between Paul and "some from James" (Gal 2:12)/the circumcision party of Acts 15.

I think the character "James" in Acts is a harmonizing blend of two Jameses: James the son of Alphaeus (who was named explicitly) and James the blood brother of Jesus (who was possibly, but obscurely named in the phrase, "Judas of James"). This blending is one factor leading to the identification of James, son of Alphaeus with James the less (of Mark 15:40 and 6:3) by Jerome (in Perpetual Virginity of Mary).

As a side note: In Commentary on Galatians, Jerome cites Heggesippus' interpretation of "James the Lord's brother" as an authority, and based on 1 Cor 15, he identifies James, the Lord's brother as "an apostle", but not as one of the 12, thus excluding the son of Alphaeus (and thus also, he departs from his views in Perpetual Virginity of Mary). I suppose that in this interpretation of James the Lord's brother in Galatians, Jerome was following Origen.

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Re: Origen 1, Scholars 0

Post by Paul the Uncertain »

Interesting thread.

On the blog, I've considered the hypothesis that Origen read and later misremembered the block of the Antiquities that begins at the end of 20.8.5 and ends with the reaction to the irregular trial of James and others at 20.9.1. That stretch of 1900 words or so in translation includes:
And this seems to me to have been the reason why God, out of his hatred of these men’s wickedness, rejected our city; and as for the temple, he no longer esteemed it sufficiently pure for him to inhabit therein, but brought the Romans upon us, and threw a fire upon the city to purge it; and brought upon us, our wives, and children, slavery, as desirous to make us wiser by our calamities…To this degree did the violence of the seditious prevail over all right and justice… This… became the occasion of the … miseries that befell our nation… Ananus… assembled the sanhedrim of judges, and brought before them the brother of Jesus, … whose name was James, and some others; and when he had formed an accusation against them as breakers of the law, he delivered them to be stoned: but as for those who seemed the most equitable of the citizens, and such as were the most uneasy at the breach of the laws, they disliked what was done…
Making a hash of this passage would account for Origen's attribution to Josephus of a divine motive for the destruction of Jerusalem. Yes, Josephus discussed in black letters the disaster as divine retribution for wrongdoing ... but not doing wrong to James. Other themes mentioned by Origen may also have been suggested here in this passage.

https://uncertaintist.wordpress.com/201 ... o-do-that/

That human long term memory can do such rewriting without bothering the reader is amusingly-or-ironically illustrated by Bart Ehrman's notorious erroneous report about the contents of Pliny's correspondence with Trajan in Did Jesus Exist?.

As with Josephus and Origen, Pliny actually did write things similar to what Ehrman reports, but Ehrman connects those things together in ways Pliny didn't. For example, Pliny's one fire in one city + Christianity spreading through both city and countryside becomes Ehrman's widespread fires throughout the province.

https://uncertaintist.wordpress.com/202 ... an-origen/
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Re: Origen 1, Scholars 0

Post by GakuseiDon »

Paul the Uncertain wrote: Fri Jul 23, 2021 11:10 amOn the blog, I've considered the hypothesis that Origen read and later misremembered the block of the Antiquities that begins at the end of 20.8.5 and ends with the reaction to the irregular trial of James and others at 20.9.1.
I wouldn't call it a 'hash' or 'misremembered' but rather a 'reading between the lines wearing his Christian revisionist glasses''. IIRC Origen does this often.

Origen writes that Josephus is "seeking after the cause of the fall of Jerusalem and the destruction of the temple". You gave the part of Josephus where he does just that, starting from 20.8.5, which I'll repeat:

Certain of these robbers went up to the city, as if they were going to worship God, while they had daggers under their garments; and, by thus mingling themselves among the multitude, they slew Jonathan [the high priest]; and as this murder was never avenged, the robbers went up with the greatest security at the festivals after this time; and having weapons concealed in like manner as before, and mingling themselves among the multitude, they slew certain of their own enemies, and were subservient to other men for money; and slew others not only in remote parts of the city, but in the Temple itself also; for they had the boldness to murder men there, without thinking of the impiety of which they were guilty.

And this seems to me to have been the reason why God, out of his hatred to these men's wickedness, rejected our city; and as for the Temple, he no longer esteemed it sufficiently pure for him to inhabit therein, but brought the Romans upon us, and threw a fire upon the city to purge it; and brought upon us, our wives, and children, slavery - as desirous to make us wiser by our calamities.

It can't be a coincidence that this appears in 20.8.5, a few paragraphs before the mention of "James". I don't see the need to think Origen misremembered the passage, if it might be him reading what "really happened" from Josephus's description.

Two other things that should be factored in are: (1) Origen says that Josephus gives the death of James as the cause "although against his [Josephus] will", perhaps suggesting it wasn't being said directly, and (2) Origen himself doesn't believe that the death of James was the cause of the downfall of the Temple.
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