Steven Avery wrote: ↑Wed Jun 10, 2020 3:12 am
If you actually have something substantive in Acts, that would be another story. You are welcome to give it a try.
Nothing offered.
You earlier claimed that Mark utilizes Acts.
JoeWallack wrote: ↑Sun Jun 07, 2020 1:24 pmJW:
This Forum is based on Science and Logic so Steven has no credibility here. He always reminds me of that scene from the Wizard of Oz where The Wicked Witch of the West is told to get lost because she has no power in Oz. Steven you have no power here. Begone! Before someone drops a first century of "Mark" manuscript on you.
Steven's only value here is as a textbook case for Apologetics. On defense, keep requiring a progressively higher standard of evidence against you and when you reach one that can't be met, posture that there is therefore no evidence against. On the offensive, keep requiring a lower standard of evidence until you can meet it and then posture that it helps prove your conclusion.
Case in point here. Evidence to identify who wrote the LE. There is evidence that "Mark" wrote it even though the evidence is better that "Mark" did not. There is no better evidence that any other identified person wrote it. So Apologetic Steven claims this is support that "Mark" wrote the LE.
Advice to fellow Truth-speakers here. If he won't answer the important questions, ignore him. If he insists on asking/repeating unimportant questions, ignore him. Homily don't play that game.
Joseph
The Strange Chapter of Dr. Jewkyll and Mr. Hymn
The amusing thing is this very same bozo who is arguing "Mark wrote the last 12 verses because 99.9% manuscripts" is the exact same bozo who DISMISSES 99.9% of manuscripts (Latin excepted) when it comes to the reading of 1 John 5:7 and the Comma Johanneum.
Methodological consistency is not his strong point. His ENTIRE reason is "because it's in the King James Version that I think is perfect," but he won't ever say it that way.
Incidentally, I (again!) find it amusing that he's demanding extreme details on how something happened; this is the same person who thinks John wrote 1 John around 40 and there was already a dropped Comma by 80 AD - but he can't give us where or how or by whom this happened.
Yet he's got the audacity and hypocrisy to demand this level of proof from folks he can't provide such proof.
Steven Avery wrote: ↑Wed Jun 10, 2020 3:12 am
If you actually have something substantive in Acts, that would be another story. You are welcome to give it a try.
Nothing offered.
You earlier claimed that Mark utilizes Acts.
Looks like a phantom claim.
Incorrect presentation of what I said. I only claimed the LE used Luke and maybe Acts.
The LE is not Mark. My statement is the two are different authors from different eras.
“’That was excellently observed’, say I, when I read a passage in an author, where his opinion agrees with mine. When we differ, there I pronounce him to be mistaken.” - Jonathan Swift
Steven Avery wrote: ↑Thu Jun 11, 2020 1:03 am
Heavenly Witnesses
"Latin exception"
Quite an exception.
Which we can estimate at way over 500 manuscripts.likely closer to 1,000,
Total number of mss. without the Mark ending,in Greek-Latin and Syriac combined - 3
Add a few in Armenian, perhaps Georgian.
Not much of an analogy.
The analogy is dead on right.
In one case you blow your horn about "99.9% of the Greek AND the Latin AND the Syriac" - and then you ABANDON that same 99.9% when it comes to a different reading.
I reiterate:
1) You don't REALLY care about Greek or even the number of MSS.
2) You don't REALLY care about Latin or the number of MSS.
3) You don't REALLY care about Syriac either.
You're simply STARTING with the KJV and engaging in apologetics - and then PRETENDING you actually care about those things to make your point.