Why ''MY Gospel'' in 2 Tim 2:8 ?

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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Giuseppe
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Why ''MY Gospel'' in 2 Tim 2:8 ?

Post by Giuseppe »

Remember Jesus Christ, raised from the dead, descended from David. This is my gospel, for which I am suffering even to the point of being chained like a criminal. But God’s word is not chained.
(2 Timothy 2:8-9)

Why the need of that ''MY'' before ''gospel'' ? Evidently because other Christians proclaimed that Christ didn't descend from David and was not raised from the dead with a body of which he was missing. As effect of that, those Christians were ''persecutors'' of the proponents of a davidic origin for the Christ.

This raises serious doubt about the authenticity of Romans 1:3 ''born of the sperm of David'', if even a pseudo-Paul did insist on the same point in a so bold manner.

And surely the Gospel possessed by the author of 2 Timothy is the same of the author of 1 Timothy, i.e. a historicist Gospel:
In the sight of God, who gives life to everything, and of Christ Jesus, who while testifying before Pontius Pilate made the good confession, I charge you
(1 Timothy 6:13)
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
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Peter Kirby
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Re: Why ''MY Gospel'' in 2 Tim 2:8 ?

Post by Peter Kirby »

I tend to agree. I think Doherty dropped the ball a bit when shoehorning the pastorals into the reinterpretation / interpolation mold.
"... almost every critical biblical position was earlier advanced by skeptics." - Raymond Brown
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