So, in Philippians Paul claims that he is a Pharisee. This would seem to indicate a pretty specific set of training and doctrinal beliefs. I would assume that an actual Pharisee would need to know Hebrew, would have read the Torah in Hebrew, would hold to some pretty standard teachings of the Temple priesthood. But Paul seems also to have renounced his status as a Pharisee, so he may not hold those views now, but if its true that he was, he would at least have been educated on the standard views.
Here he is talking to a "Gentile" audience. People who, presumably, wouldn't know that much about Judaism in general, much less whatever he is talking about.
27 Isaiah cries out concerning Israel, “Though the number of the sons of Israel may be like the sand of the sea, only the remnant will be saved; 28 for the Lord will execute His word on the earth, thoroughly and quickly.” 29 And just as Isaiah foretold:
“If the Lord of armies had not left us descendants,
We would have become like Sodom, and would have been like Gomorrah.”
30 What shall we say then? That Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, attained righteousness, but the righteousness that is by faith; 31 however, Israel, pursuing a law of righteousness, did not arrive at that law. 32 Why? Because they did not pursue it by faith, but as though they could by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone, 33 just as it is written:
“Behold, I am laying in Zion a stone of stumbling and a rock of offense,
And the one who believes in Him will not be put to shame.”
10 Brothers and sisters, my heart’s desire and my prayer to God for them is for their salvation. 2 For I testify about them that they have a zeal for God, but not in accordance with knowledge. [(gnosis)] 3 For not knowing about God’s righteousness and seeking to establish their own, they did not subject themselves to the righteousness of God. 4 For Christ [(the Messiah)] is the end of the Law for righteousness to everyone who believes.
5 For Moses writes of the righteousness that is based on the Law, that the person who performs them will live by them. 6 But the righteousness based on faith speaks as follows: “Do not say in your heart, ‘Who will go up into heaven?’ (that is, to bring Christ down), 7 or ‘Who will descend into the abyss?’ (that is, to bring Christ up from the dead).” 8 But what does it say? “The word is near you, in your mouth and in your heart”—that is, the word of faith which we are preaching, 9 that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; 10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation. 11 For the Scripture says, “Whoever believes in Him will not be put to shame.” 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, abounding in riches for all who call on Him; 13 for “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.”
This seems to implicate Moses himself as one who is ignorant of God's righteousness. One can see the basis of Marcion's views.
So to this Gentile audience, about whom Paul never says anything about "Yahweh", it seems that Paul is saying that Jesus, NOT Yahweh, is the one that is talked about in the scripture, every time the scriptures mention "the Lord". It almost seems as if Paul is making Jesus as replacement of Yahweh, and is actually thinking along Marcionite lines. The Jews are ignorant of the Highest God and ignorant of who the Lord really was. The Lord was NOT Yahweh, he was Jesus. But who is Jesus? Near as I can figure, Jesus is the Suffering Servant. I think Paul is saying that the Suffering Servant is the Lord, but even that remains confusing. But I'm also pretty sure that while Paul seems to equate Jesus to Yahweh, as Barker states, he's really making Jesus a replacement of Yahweh.
He's not saying that Jesus is Yahweh, he's saying that Yahweh is a false deity and Jesus is the real Lord... I think...