If the synoptic gospels are three different translations of a common Hebrew or Aramaic source

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Stuart
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neilgodfrey wrote: Tue Jun 22, 2021 2:47 am
Stuart wrote: Sun Jun 20, 2021 12:17 pm But I fully acknowledge Christianity grew out of some splinter of Judaism. And that of course it had to have started with at least some Aramaic speakers and Hebrew writers. The question for me is, at what stage of the prototype gospel formation did the language switch to Greek? Was the entire project Greek, or was there some earlier core that was Hebrew/Aramaic?
The more I look into midrashic connections with the Hebrew scriptures I sometimes think we have no need to be looking for prototypes or ur-gospels. Rather, how about the literati studying, analysing, discussing and exchanging ideas, with the writing being limited to letters, small "talks" and mini-treatises. From here the first gospel was written -- even if in Greek, it had Hebrew discussions, ideas etc to draw upon. Perhaps the best explanation for the prototypes not surviving is that there were no such prototypes. Or what were those "memoirs of the apostles" Justin speaks of?
I can't go there. There is too much overlap. There had to be a prototype, and in fact I think two forms. Largely this is based on technical evidence.

I would propose instead that the midrashic composition capability existed among the gospel writers, at least of the Marcionite and Matthew gospels. This may have been done in Greek (IMO that was the case, much like Philo's Theraputae communities) or in Hebrew. But these were built upon prototype gospels. Mark has no additional midrashic material, so I do not think he had that skill, much like he lacked knowledge of Malachi and Isaiah, such that he could not even identify passages from them.Mark in fact convinces me their was a prototype.

The weak point in the argument that there may not have been a prototype is shown by the Marcionite gospel and what looks like a Signs or other first version of John embedded within than gospel. We also have the earlier form of the Pauline letters, and within them many shorter letters. No manuscripts of these survive.

Note, I think we way underestimate the impact of the Diocletian persecution had on the survival of manuscripts. We really do not have any definite pre-4th century surviving manuscripts (a few contested, and mostly scraps) and we have clear text types among those early manuscripts, suggesting a relatively few archetype manuscripts were available to propagate the manuscripts we have. The other impact was the near complete disappearance of many non-canonical books. Certainly any prototypes that had survived the Decian and Diocletian persecutions would have gone the way of the Gospel of the Egyptians or the Psalms of the Marcionites (some may have survived by absorption into Catholic versions). In short the absence of prototype manuscripts is no more compelling an argument than similar ones about shorter forms of the Pauline letters.

Finally, I have come to the opinion that the (prototype) gospel goes back farther than their use in evangelism. This was a document that existed and was used for some other community purpose, perhaps as a religious play, before it was purposed as the evangelical gospels we know.
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neilgodfrey
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Re: `

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Stuart wrote: Tue Jun 22, 2021 10:39 am There is too much overlap.
Can you elaborate on this point?
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neilgodfrey
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Re: If the synoptic gospels are three different translations of a common Hebrew or Aramaic source

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Giuseppe wrote: Tue Jun 22, 2021 5:37 am As evidence Mergui points out in particular:
  • the 30 Denarii given to Judas. According to a Rabbinical/Talmudical teaching, the Messiah will not abolish the Law, he will limit himself to give only 30 laws to the Gentiles. Hence, by receiving only 30 denarii for Jesus, the sense is: the Scribes and Pharisees (=post-70 Judaism) value very few the Messiah. At contrary, the Gentiles deserve the end/mitigation of the Law for both Jews and Gentiles.
  • the fact that with the 30 Denarii the Pharisees buy a camp*, is the proof that they think that the End will not arrive now, which is equivalent to say that, for them, the Messiah will arrive in the indefinite future.
I would not call such an interpretation as evidence for a hypothesis. Rather, I think the interpretation is read into the text -- but it is the interpretation, the hypothesis, that needs to be established first. Otherwise we the argument is chasing its tail, circular.
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Giuseppe
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Re: If the synoptic gospels are three different translations of a common Hebrew or Aramaic source

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neilgodfrey wrote: Tue Jun 22, 2021 4:21 pm
I would not call such an interpretation as evidence for a hypothesis. Rather, I think the interpretation is read into the text -- but it is the interpretation, the hypothesis, that needs to be established first. Otherwise we the argument is chasing its tail, circular.
the interpretation is easily built on a FACT:

the only survived judaism after the 70 CE, i.e. rabbinical judaism, had placed the day of the Messiah in the indefinite future, to reassure the Romans.

The Jews who didn't agree with a Messiah placed in the indefinite future were killed during the revolt or they were the early Christians.
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neilgodfrey
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Re: If the synoptic gospels are three different translations of a common Hebrew or Aramaic source

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Giuseppe wrote: Tue Jun 22, 2021 8:37 pm
the interpretation is easily built on a FACT:
Yes, interpretation can be built on "facts", but it is the interpretation that needs to be proven to be true. We can't use the fact to prove the interpretation. It is the interpretation that makes the fact support what we want.
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Giuseppe
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Re: If the synoptic gospels are three different translations of a common Hebrew or Aramaic source

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It cannot be a mere interpretation, that the action of "buying a camp" is equivalent to a denial of the imminent coming of the day of the Messiah.
Mergui quotes a passage from Shepard of Hermas where the equivalence is made clear between the "possession of fields" and the delay of the End.

1[50]:3 O foolish and double-minded and miserable man, perceivest thou not that all these things are foreign, and are under the power of another For the lord of this city shall say, "I do not wish thee to dwell in my city; go forth from this city, for thou dost not conform to my laws."

1[50]:4 Thou, therefor who hast fields and dwellings and many other possessions, when thou art cast out by him, what wilt thou do with thy field and thy house am all the other things that thou preparedst for thyself? For the lord of this country saith to thee justly, "Either conform to my laws, or depart from my country."

http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/t ... tfoot.html
Stuart
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Re: `

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neilgodfrey wrote: Tue Jun 22, 2021 4:06 pm
Stuart wrote: Tue Jun 22, 2021 10:39 am There is too much overlap.
Can you elaborate on this point?
I meant overlap in specific words, phrases and order across the synoptic gospels (Marcionite, Matthew, Mark, Luke). You are left with two choices, either they copied each other or they worked from some common (though variant from document to document) source. IMO both elements are present, both things happened. I'm confident you are well aware of the arguments and example cases, so I wont do it here.
brewskiMarc
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Re: If the synoptic gospels are three different translations of a common Hebrew or Aramaic source

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Neil, you have a post on Vridar December, 2010 that discusses the Latinisms in GMark.

If AMark started out writing in Latin (only later translating to Greek) and if that version is the one used by Matthew and Luke to compose theirs in Greek, would that account for the discrepancies? And would it also do away with a need for a prototype of Mark?
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neilgodfrey
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Re: `

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Stuart wrote: Wed Jun 23, 2021 12:42 pm
neilgodfrey wrote: Tue Jun 22, 2021 4:06 pm
Stuart wrote: Tue Jun 22, 2021 10:39 am There is too much overlap.
Can you elaborate on this point?
I meant overlap in specific words, phrases and order across the synoptic gospels (Marcionite, Matthew, Mark, Luke). You are left with two choices, either they copied each other or they worked from some common (though variant from document to document) source. IMO both elements are present, both things happened. I'm confident you are well aware of the arguments and example cases, so I wont do it here.
Sorry, I thought you were suggesting that a prototype was the inevitable -- and only -- conclusion we are faced with.
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neilgodfrey
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Re: If the synoptic gospels are three different translations of a common Hebrew or Aramaic source

Post by neilgodfrey »

brewskiMarc wrote: Wed Jun 23, 2021 1:13 pm Neil, you have a post on Vridar December, 2010 that discusses the Latinisms in GMark.

If AMark started out writing in Latin (only later translating to Greek) and if that version is the one used by Matthew and Luke to compose theirs in Greek, would that account for the discrepancies? And would it also do away with a need for a prototype of Mark?
From what I understand of the discrepancies, they are inspired by theological interests, primarily. Example, Matthew's Jesus was a "new Moses" and that perspective led him to rewrite much of Mark as he did.
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