"James the Just": What is the origin of the phrase?

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
gryan
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Re: "James the Just": What is the origin of the phrase?

Post by gryan »

Ken Olson wrote: Sun Mar 06, 2022 6:05 pm
Interestingly, there are two or three scholars who have argued that the version of the James passage found in Origen is authentic and the extant text is, therefore, inauthentic. Notably:

Sabrina Inowlocki, "Did Josephus Ascribe the Fall of Jerusalem to the Murder of James, Brother of Jesus?" Revue des études juives, 170 (1-2), janvier-juin 2011, pp. 21-49.

It can be downloaded from her Academia.edu site:

https://www.academia.edu/47127443/Did_J ... r_of_Jesus

IIRC P.-A. Bernheim 1996 (cited in Inowlocki) proposes a similar hypothesis.

Best,

Ken
"Significantly, in the Commentary, Origen does not ascribe to Josephus the use of the name James the just: he only mentions the appellation James brother of Jesus called Christ."
--Sabrina Inowlocki p.26
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Ken Olson
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Re: "James the Just": What is the origin of the phrase?

Post by Ken Olson »

gryan wrote: Fri Mar 11, 2022 6:21 pm
Ken Olson wrote: Sun Mar 06, 2022 6:05 pm
Interestingly, there are two or three scholars who have argued that the version of the James passage found in Origen is authentic and the extant text is, therefore, inauthentic. Notably:

Sabrina Inowlocki, "Did Josephus Ascribe the Fall of Jerusalem to the Murder of James, Brother of Jesus?" Revue des études juives, 170 (1-2), janvier-juin 2011, pp. 21-49.

It can be downloaded from her Academia.edu site:

https://www.academia.edu/47127443/Did_J ... r_of_Jesus

IIRC P.-A. Bernheim 1996 (cited in Inowlocki) proposes a similar hypothesis.

Best,

Ken
"Significantly, in the Commentary, Origen does not ascribe to Josephus the use of the name James the just: he only mentions the appellation James brother of Jesus called Christ."
--Sabrina Inowlocki p.26
She thinks this is a significant difference between the accounts Origen gives in the Commentary on Matt 10.17 and Contra Celsum 1.47 (where Origen calls him James the Just, who was a brother of Jesus called Christ). Is there some other way this is significant?

Best,

Ken
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MrMacSon
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Re: "James the Just": What is the origin of the phrase?

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gryan wrote: Fri Mar 11, 2022 6:21 pm "Significantly, in the Commentary, Origen does not ascribe to Josephus the use of the name James the just: he only mentions the appellation James brother of Jesus called Christ."
--Sabrina Inowlocki p.26
Origen's Comm in Matthew X.17 uses righteousness to refer to or describe James, twice

And to so great a reputation among the people for righteousness did this James rise, that Flavius Josephus, who wrote the Antiquities of the Jews in twenty books, when wishing to exhibit the cause why the people suffered so great misfortunes that even the temple was razed to the ground, said, that these things happened to them in accordance with the wrath of God in consequence of the things which they had dared to do against James the brother of Jesus who is called Christ. And the wonderful thing is, that, though he did not accept Jesus as Christ, he yet gave testimony that the righteousness of James was so great; and he says that the people thought that they had suffered these things because of James.

gryan
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Re: "James the Just": What is the origin of the phrase?

Post by gryan »

Ken Olson wrote: Fri Mar 11, 2022 6:59 pm
"Significantly, in the Commentary, Origen does not ascribe to Josephus the use of the name James the just: he only mentions the appellation James brother of Jesus called Christ."
--Sabrina Inowlocki p.26

She thinks this is a significant difference between the accounts Origen gives in the Commentary on Matt 10.17 and Contra Celsum 1.47 (where Origen calls him James the Just, who was a brother of Jesus called Christ). Is there some other way this is significant?
Re: "Is there some other way this is significant?"

My thesis is that Hegesippus misread Galatians if and when he identified the Lord's brother named "James" with the recognized pillar named "James" (another "James" who I identify as James son of Alphaeus).

I think our earliest records of the title "James the just" (Gospel of Hebrews and Gospel of Thomas) make better sense if "James the Just" is understood to be the pillar named "James" (Cf 1 Cor 15:7 and Acts 15) who was one of the 12, namely, the son of Alphaeus.

It helps my thesis if it is clear that the line of influence for the misuse of the title "James the Just" as belonging to Lord's brother goes from Hegesippas through Eusebius to Origin without any help from Flavius Josephus.

None of this is to deny that James the Lord's brother was a model of a kind of righteous living. I think the James of Acts 15 (James son of Alphaeus, the pillar) was attempting to mediate between Paul and a chief critic of Paul's kind of righteousness, Lord's Brother named James.
Trees of Life
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Re: "James the Just": What is the origin of the phrase?

Post by Trees of Life »

MrMacSon wrote: Fri Mar 11, 2022 8:53 pm
gryan wrote: Fri Mar 11, 2022 6:21 pm "Significantly, in the Commentary, Origen does not ascribe to Josephus the use of the name James the just: he only mentions the appellation James brother of Jesus called Christ."
--Sabrina Inowlocki p.26
Origen's Comm in Matthew X.17 uses righteousness to refer to or describe James, twice

And to so great a reputation among the people for righteousness did this James rise, that Flavius Josephus, who wrote the Antiquities of the Jews in twenty books, when wishing to exhibit the cause why the people suffered so great misfortunes that even the temple was razed to the ground, said, that these things happened to them in accordance with the wrath of God in consequence of the things which they had dared to do against James the brother of Jesus who is called Christ. And the wonderful thing is, that, though he did not accept Jesus as Christ, he yet gave testimony that the righteousness of James was so great; and he says that the people thought that they had suffered these things because of James.

James being accredited righteous then meant he was protected by the spirit along with the city in which he resided. For that reason he was also described as James the bulwark.

Josephus is accredited with being laudatory of Jesus Christ, Antiquities 18.3.3:

'Now there was about this time Jesus, a wise man, if it be lawful to call him a man; for he was a doer of wonderful works, a teacher of such men as receive the truth with pleasure. He drew over to him both many of the Jews and many of the Gentiles. He was Christ. And when Pilate, at the suggestion of the principal men amongst us, had condemned him to the cross, those that loved him at the first did not forsake him; for he appeared to them alive again the third day; as the divine prophets had foretold these and ten thousand other wonderful things concerning him. And the tribe of Christians, so named from him, are not extinct at this day.'

Joseph accepts that Jesus was Christ and so in counterpoint the above Commentary passage: 'though he did not accept Jesus as Christ/Messiah', obviously with continuity is to be rendered, 'though they did not accept Jesus as Christ/Messiah'... 'the people thought they had suffered these things because '... James Oblias, or the bulwark, was no longer protecting them, and the circumstances in which Sodom was without protection after righteous Lot left, repeated itself upon Jerusalem after James' soul had departed and he no longer abode there.

The destruction of Jerusalem and its temple came about because James' life had ran its course and Jerusalem no longer through him had the protection of the holy spirit.

After the death of James by stoning shortly before Passover in AD 70, requital for the crucifixion of Yeshua was enabled— Hegesippus: 'And immediately afterwards Vespasian besieged them'.
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Re: "James the Just": What is the origin of the phrase?

Post by davidlau17 »

gryan wrote: Sat Mar 12, 2022 5:13 am My thesis is that Hegesippus misread Galatians if and when he identified the Lord's brother named "James" with the recognized pillar named "James" (another "James" who I identify as James son of Alphaeus).

I think our earliest records of the title "James the just" (Gospel of Hebrews and Gospel of Thomas) make better sense if "James the Just" is understood to be the pillar named "James" (Cf 1 Cor 15:7 and Acts 15) who was one of the 12, namely, the son of Alphaeus.
Why do you think Paul meant "James, the brother of Lord" to be a different person than the one he listed as a pillar? It's true that these could theoretically be two different Jameses, but it seems more likely to me that they are one. Paul first mentioned seeing Cephas and James ("the brother of the Lord") in Jerusalem. In the next chapter, he mentioned seeing three pillars, among whom were Cephas and James, again in Jerusalem.

Would it be likely that James from chapter 2 was a different James from the James in chapter 1, but for some reason, Paul chose not to distinguish him (he simply refers to him as "James" in Gal. 2:9)?

But even if we were to assume that these were two different Jameses, why would we assume the pillar (presumably, James the Just) to be "James the son of Alphaeus"? Apart from being a name in the lists of the twelve, we know next to nothing about James of Alphaeus. Neither the Gospel of Hebrews nor the Gospel of Thomas suggest their "James the Just" to be one of the twelve disciples.
gryan
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Re: "James the Just": What is the origin of the phrase?

Post by gryan »

davidlau17 wrote: Sat Mar 12, 2022 5:00 pm Why do you think Paul meant "James, the brother of Lord" to be a different person than the one he listed as a pillar?
My thesis comes out of a close reading of Galatians. I have answers to all your good questions but it gets complicated.

Short answer: Catholic church tradition going back to Jerome has it that James son of Alphaeus and James the Lord's brother were one and the same person. I think they got the characters right, but made a mistake when they combined the two into one.

On one hand, I agree with the scholars who say that "James the Lord's brother" was the same-womb brother of Jesus (see Mark 6:3 and 15:40). I think "James the less" was "James, the Lord's brother"--the flesh and blood brother of Jesus. I think Paul did indeed "consult with flesh and blood" when he saw "James the Lord's brother" (Gal 1:16 and 1:19)

On the other hand, I agree with scholars who say that James and Cephas of Galatians 2 who gave Paul and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship are the same as the James and Peter of Acts 15. I note that Luke-Acts erases Mark's/Matthew's explicit naming of the other sons of Mary, mother of Jesus. So. within the narrative world of Luke-Acts, it is most likely that, after the death of James, son of Zebedee, the subsequent "James" named as a leader in and after Acts 12:17 was the other "James" named as one of the original 12. I think that the "recognized ones" (οἱ δοκοῦντες of Gal 2:2, 6, and 9) were all from the 12 (eg. the 12 who, according to Mark 10:42, where privy to Jesus' critique of οἱ δοκοῦντες of the Gentiles who "lord it over" their subjects).

Apart from getting any farther into the weeds of Galatians, I'm wondering how that "opening gambit" sits with you.
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Re: "James the Just": What is the origin of the phrase?

Post by davidlau17 »

gryan wrote: Tue Mar 15, 2022 5:14 am My thesis comes out of a close reading of Galatians. I have answers to all your good questions but it gets complicated.

Short answer: Catholic church tradition going back to Jerome has it that James son of Alphaeus and James the Lord's brother were one and the same person. I think they got the characters right, but made a mistake when they combined the two into one.

On one hand, I agree with the scholars who say that "James the Lord's brother" was the same-womb brother of Jesus (see Mark 6:3 and 15:40). I think "James the less" was "James, the Lord's brother"--the flesh and blood brother of Jesus. I think Paul did indeed "consult with flesh and blood" when he saw "James the Lord's brother" (Gal 1:16 and 1:19)
I think it's worth it to dig a bit deeper into Jerome's identification of three Jameses: James the Lord's brother, James the son of Alphaeus, and James the Less. Jerome spells out his rationale for this identification explicitly in The Perpetual Virginity of Mary . All of his deductions are based on his readings of the NT, and he gives us no indication that he had any better idea about the identities of the Jameses than either you or I would from our own intuition.

No one doubts that there were two apostles called by the name James, James the son of Zebedee, and James the son of Alphæus. Do you intend the comparatively unknown James the Less, who is called in Scripture the son of Mary, not however of Mary the mother of our Lord, to be an apostle, or not? If he is an apostle, he must be the son of Alphæus and a believer in Jesus. "For neither did his brethren believe in him."

If he is not an apostle, but a third James (who he can be I cannot tell), how can he be regarded as the Lord's brother, and how, being a third, can he be called less to distinguish him from greater, when greater and less are used to denote the relations existing, not between three, but between two? Notice, moreover, that the Lord's brother is an apostle, since Paul says, Galatians 1:18-19 Then after three years I went up to Jerusalem to visit Cephas, and tarried with him fifteen days. But other of the Apostles saw I none, save James the Lord's brother. And in the same Epistle, Galatians 2:9 And when they perceived the grace that was given unto me, James and Cephas and John, who were reputed to be pillars, etc. And that you may not suppose this James to be the son of Zebedee, you have only to read the Acts of the Apostles, and you will find that the latter had already been slain by Herod. The only conclusion is that the Mary who is described as the mother of James the Less was the wife of Alphæus and sister of Mary the Lord's mother, the one who is called by John the Evangelist Mary of Clopas, whether after her father, or kindred, or for some other reason.

Jerome is probably correct that James the Lord's brother and James the Less are the same person, but I agree with you that we can't necessarily say the same for James of Alphaeus. Jerome's identification of James of Alphaeus with James the Lord's brother is entirely dependent on his identification of James of Alphaeus with James the Less.
gryan wrote: Tue Mar 15, 2022 5:14 am On the other hand, I agree with scholars who say that James and Cephas of Galatians 2 who gave Paul and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship are the same as the James and Peter of Acts 15. I note that Luke-Acts erases Mark's/Matthew's explicit naming of the other sons of Mary, mother of Jesus. So. within the narrative world of Luke-Acts, it is most likely that, after the death of James, son of Zebedee, the subsequent "James" named as a leader in and after Acts 12:17 was the other "James" named as one of the original 12. I think that the "recognized ones" (οἱ δοκοῦντες of Gal 2:2, 6, and 9) were all from the 12 (eg. the 12 who, according to Mark 10:42, where privy to Jesus' critique of οἱ δοκοῦντες of the Gentiles who "lord it over" their subjects).
I agree that the James and Cephas from Galatians 2 are identical with the James and Peter from Acts 15. I don't agree that the James presented to us in Acts 15 is necessarily meant to be James of Alphaeus or one of the 12. James, the leader of the Church, is never given an introduction or properly identified. He is introduced to us in passing through the mouth of Peter in Acts 12:17 ("Tell this to James and the brothers") almost immediately following the death of James of Zebedee. If it hadn't been for the fact that James of Zebedee had just died, we'd likely believe Peter was referring to him.

I don't see how James of Alphaeus being named as one of the original 12 would make him any more likely than the other 9 remaining disciples to take a leadership position in Jerusalem. John, still alive and not imprisoned, would seem to be a more likely candidate based on his more prominent status in the gospels. If James the Just was indeed the scarely mentioned James of Alphaeus, Acts seems to have omitted important information regarding this mysterious figure's rise to prominence and why he was elected over the others. If James the Just was the brother of the Lord mentioned in Galatians 1, this would give us an explanation for why this James took a leadership position (an explanation consistent with what Hegesippus tells us).
gryan wrote: Tue Mar 15, 2022 5:14 amApart from getting any farther into the weeds of Galatians, I'm wondering how that "opening gambit" sits with you.
Do you mean the origin of the nickname "the Just"/"Righteous One"? I think you've properly noted the earliest instances of its application to James (Gospel of Thomas, Gospel of the Hebrews, Hegesippus) - I'm not certain of the order in which these were written. I doubt it originated with Hegessipus; it might have some relation to the community that wrote the Dead Sea Scrolls.
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Re: "James the Just": What is the origin of the phrase?

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@davidlau17
Thanks for sharing your point of view.

My views are based primarily on my own close reading of Gal 1 and 2. My views differ considerably from traditional views that favor Jerome's commentary, but correspond pretty well with the views of the first Latin commentator on Galatians: Victorinus. I think Victorinus's comments presume without argument that James the Lord's brother and "some from James" [ie from the Lord's brother] were of the circumcision party. By contrast, the pillar James gave Paul and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, having understood his mission aright. I also agree with Victoricnus that they did "give place in submission for an hour" to the "false brothers". The implication is that the greater served the lesser. James son of Alphaeus tried his best to be a servant both to Paul (his equal in terms of revelation experience with the risen Lord), and on the other hand, to James the Lord's brother (his lesser in terms of serving all, even uncircumcised Gentiles).

I have opened another thread having to do with the identification of James son of Alphaeus with Gospel of John's Nathanael. viewtopic.php?f=3&t=9325 This thesis is new to me and it is possibly relevant to this thread too. In the primary text: Jesus said Nathanael would "see angels ascending and descending on the Son of Man." Also, Nathanael was with Peter when the risen Lord appeared. This fits well with the image of the "James" as one who saw the Lord according to 1 Cor 15:

1Cor
3For what I received I passed on to you as of first importance: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4that He was buried, that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures, 5and that He appeared to Cephasa and then to the Twelve. 6After that, He appeared to more than five hundred brothers at once, most of whom are still living, though some have fallen asleep. 7Then He appeared to James, then to all the apostles. 8And last of all He appeared to me also, as to one of untimely birth.

Also, the ascending and descending motif fits well with heaven and earth mention in Gospel of Thomas 12:

Gospel of Thomas, LAYTON's translation:
(12) The disciples said to Jesus, "We are aware that you will depart from us. Who will be our leader?" Jesus said to him, "No matter where you come it is to James the Just that you shall go, for whose sake heaven and earth have come to exist."
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Re: "James the Just": What is the origin of the phrase?

Post by rakovsky »

GakuseiDon wrote: Mon Jul 19, 2021 2:02 pm
rakovsky wrote: Mon Jul 19, 2021 10:49 am"... Therefore, in consequence of his pre-eminent justice, he was called the Just, and Oblias, which signifies in Greek Defence of the People, and Justice, in accordance with what the prophets declare concerning him."
Does anyone know what Hegesippus means here? What had the prophets declared regarding James the Just?
I'm not certain what exactly the writer has in mind. The Old Testament at times makes reference to "the righteous", including in prophecies. Hegesippus says in the quote above that James was called the Just, signifying defense of the people and justice. That is, in the Old Testament, we find predictions about the righteous one(s), and these predictions could by extension apply to James, due to his righteousness. This is my best guess.

On the other hand, some Christian writings of the 1st-2nd century AD (like Ignatius, as I recall) speak of Christian "prophets" as one of the offices of Christians, but later this seems to have fallen out of use, perhaps in reaction against Montanism. Hegessippus, writing in the 2nd century AD, could conceivably be using the term "prophets" in that sense, and meaning that Christian inspired people were calling him Just. There are one or more arcane references to James outside the Bible that could apply if that was the case. For instance, the possibly Gnostic "Gospel of Thomas" has in Saying #12:
The disciples said to Jesus, "We are aware that you will depart from us. Who will be our leader?" Jesus said to him, "No matter where you come it is to James the Just that you shall go, for whose sake heaven and earth have come to exist."
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