So Roger Parvus:
In fact, some have proposed that the most extensive personal contribution the author of Revelation made to the work was its first three chapters (1:1-3:22) and its conclusion (22:6-21). And interestingly enough, those parts may have been written with an awareness of the issues discussed in the central section of 1 Corinthians; marriage to unbelievers, for instance, and the eating of food that had been sacrificed to idols. Dale B. Martin writes: “It is entirely possible, as surprising as it may be for modern Christians, that Revelation was written, at least in part, to condemn a form of Pauline Christianity existing in western Asia Minor at the end of the first century. Those are the kind of comfortable Christians John wants to afflict. (New Testament History and Literature, p. 357)
Note that I am not suggesting that the book of Revelation had already been written by the 50s. It obviously wasn’t, since its visions about Nero redivivus point at least to a date of composition after his death in 68 CE. What I am suggesting is that the community from which the Revelation prophecies emanated was already in existence in the 50s and that already at least some of its members were prophesying an end-time reign of Christ on earth. Many mainstream scholars agree that the author of Revelation brought older oracles into his work and incorporated some of them with little or no alteration.
https://vridar.org/2014/03/31/a-simonia ... ntroversy/
And so Earl Doherty:
https://www.jesuspuzzle.com/jesuspuzzle/supp01.htm
Hence:
John the Baptist's ipsissima verba appear in Book of Revelation.
It was expected, then, as natural reaction against John the Baptist:
- that a moderate pauline ("Mark") made John the Baptist subjected to Paul's Jesus
- that a radical pauline (Marcion) hated John the Baptist.