Pilate the Apostle?

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Giuseppe
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Pilate the Apostle?

Post by Giuseppe »

Why was Pilate considered a Christian Apostle, possibly the First Apostle of Christ in Rome, even before Paul?

The suspicion is that the goodness of Pilate is not a mere effect of an apology before Rome.

But rather the contrary: that the assumed goodness of Pilate moved "Mark" (author) to portrait Pilate as essentially innocent about the death of Jesus.

What is known about Pilate is that he was the "man of Tiberius": the first Governor of Judea who was named by Tiberius just when Tiberius became Emperor.

Pilate is therefore the representant of Tiberius in Judea more than how other governors (as for example Gratus) were. Laura Knight-Jadczyk is right on this particular point.

The goodness a priori of Pilate, a goodness that is not there as mere apology ad Romanos, has to find his justification in Radical Gentilizers: Marcion.


As the Gentilizing logic goes:

Pilate is a Gentile THEREFORE he is good and innocent and a true Christian, etc.

Note that I am abandoning the old usured logic: "to blame the Jews alone of the death of Jesus, the Roman Pilate is made innocent".

Time has come to consider the innocence of Pilate an assumption a priori in virtue of Pilate being a Gentile, even before of him being a Roman Gentile.
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