Or it alludes to the destruction of the Temple. Or it alludes to the persecution under Claudius mentioned by Suetonius. Or the massacre in Egypt.Giuseppe wrote: ↑Thu Jun 23, 2022 10:24 am Come on, Chris: 1 Thess 2:14-16 can't be genuine, because the verse "The wrath of God has come upon them at last" alludes to a political "wrath", materialized by Hadrian's legions destroying the last revolt. In Paul's (traditional) time, there was no echo of Judea going to be destroyed politically on a so large scale.
So Marcion wrote that the Jews crucified Jesus.
As to Pilate being mentioned in Luke, I don't see particular marcionite points in the Passion story, apart possibly the answer given by Jesus to Pilate: "you say so (that I are the king of Jews), I don't".
You know, a vague comment that could refer to any number of things.
You keep making these claims as though definitive about vague passages that do not intimate at all. There is no intimation in this passage of Judea being destroyed, unless you really read into what "wrath" means. It could also indicate Paul's eschatological vision. And at best, even if we assume that the "the wrath of God has come upon them at last" is something he couldn't possibly say... it only means that "the wrath of God has come upon them at last" is an interpolation. Not the whole of 2:14-16. So, no.
Like partial interpolation is an actual option here. You just seem to jump to the most radical conclusions on very small shreds of evidence here. It is your conjecture that this refers to "political" wrath.
The more your theories require conjectured interpolations to work, the less likely them become, imo. Call that Chrissy's Law of Interpolations if you will lol.