Experts have looked into that sort of thing and to my knowledge the etymological argument is not very convincing. Jerome argued that the mother of James son of Alphaeus was Mary of Clopas, but he did not base it on etymology:davidmartin wrote: ↑Sat Jul 02, 2022 3:29 pm James of Alphaeus. if the theory is right that says Alphaeus is Clopas
How similar Klopa and Kepa sound in Aramaic
Not that i'm saying this James could be the son of Peter (Simon Cepha), i thought Clopa might mean something else entirely
From The Perpetual Virginity of Mary
"The only conclusion is that the Mary who... was the wife of Alphæus... the one who is called by John the Evangelist Mary of Clopas, whether after her father, or kindred, or for some other reason... you have still to learn that it is customary in Scripture for the same individual to bear different names. Raguel, Moses' father-in-law, is also called Jethro. Gedeon, without any apparent reason for the change, all at once becomes Jerubbaal. Ozias, king of Judah, has an alternative, Azarias. Mount Tabor is called Itabyrium. Again Hermon is called by the Phenicians Sanior, and by the Amorites Sanir. The same tract of country is known by three names, Negebh, Teman, and Darom in Ezekiel. Peter is also called Simon and Cephas. Judas the zealot in another Gospel is called Thaddaeus. And there are numerous other examples which the reader will be able to collect for himself from every part of Scripture." https://www.newadvent.org/fathers/3007.htm
Jerome thought of the Alphaeus and Clopas as two different names for the same Mary. I'm inclined to agree with Jerome on that. I base my argument on the narrative world of Mark, primarily. The fit with GJohn is secondary, and not essential. It is a definite maybe.