Possibly. But I think somewhere "Paul" had to have written some name that was construed as "Jesus".
This is also interesting, from the epistle of James 5:
"10 As an example, brothers and sisters, of suffering and patience, take
the prophets who spoke in the name of the Lord."
" 14 Is anyone among you sick? Then he must call for the elders of the church and they are to pray over him, anointing him with oil
in the name of the Lord; 15 and the prayer of faith will restore the one who is sick, and the Lord will raise him up, and if he has committed sins, they will be forgiven him."
I've long thought that James, whether "authentic" or not, looks like a writing by someone who had no concept of the Gospel Jesus. Throughout James the writer refers back to figures from the Jewish scriptures as examples of humans to follow and take lessons from, as opposed to Jesus.
In James 5:10, the writer says to look to the ancient prophets as examples of people who had patience and endured suffering. When he talks about them speaking "in the name of the Lord" he cannot possibly mean Jesus, he means Yahweh, well, he means "the Lord" of the "Old Testament". So this is an example of a case where an epistle writers refers to "the name of the Lord" in a way that clearly means the Lord of the ancient scriptures, not some recently living person.
When the writer again mentions the "name of the Lord" in v14 and the Lord in v15, I think it is clear this writer is referring to the Lord of the ancient scriptures, not "Jesus".
Now we read Paul: 1 Cor 5: "3 For my part, even though I am not physically present, I am with you in spirit. As one who is present with you in this way, I have already passed judgment
in the name of our Lord Jesus on the one who has been doing this."
Clearly, without "Jesus" here, this can be taken to mean the Lord of the scriptures, in the same way that it is used in James.
What about this one:
23 For I received from the Lord that which I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus, on the night when He was betrayed, took bread; 24 and when He had given thanks, He broke it and said, “This is My body, which is for you; do this in remembrance of Me.” 25 In the same way He also took the cup after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in My blood; do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of Me.” 26 For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lord’s death until He comes.
27 Therefore whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy way, shall be guilty of the body and the blood of the Lord.
I do think this passage is authentic to the original Pauline letters. I think that whoever wrote the original Pauline letters conceived of "the Lord" as the heavenly son of the Highest God. They may have conceived of this figure descending to earth, or not, its unclear. But I'm confident they didn't think of this figure as the person described in the Gospels.
Might this passage originally not included any name at all? Or might it have included a name, but that name wasn't "Jesus" it some Greek version of YHWH?
As has already been pointed out in this thread, this one is tricky: Cor 1:12 "3 Therefore I make known to you that no one speaking by the Spirit of God says, “Jesus is accursed”; and no one can say, “Jesus is Lord,” except by the Holy Spirit."
Later revision or was there some version of YHWH here?
These are also tricky:
2 Cor 4:
"4 The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel that displays the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. 5 For what we preach is not ourselves, but
Jesus Christ as Lord, and ourselves as your servants for
Jesus’ sake. 6 For God, who said, “Let light shine out of darkness,” made his light shine in our hearts to give us the light of the knowledge of God’s glory displayed in the face of Christ."
"Since we have that same spirit of faith, we also believe and therefore speak, 14 because we know that the one who raised the Lord Jesus from the dead will also raise us with
Jesus and present us with you to himself. 15 All this is for your benefit, so that the grace that is reaching more and more people may cause thanksgiving to overflow to the glory of God."
Later revisions, or was there some other name there? Or did this writer somehow arrive as "Jesus" as the name for the Lord Yahweh?
2 Cor 4 is interesting in many ways. Who is the "god of this age"? Is this a Marcionite interpolation? Is 2 Cor 4 filled with Marcionite interpolation? Clearly v14 requires a name. But is the whole passage secondary?
2 Cor 11: "3 But I am afraid that, as the serpent deceived Eve by his trickery, your minds will be led astray from sincere and pure devotion to Christ. 4 For if one comes and preaches
another Jesus whom we have not preached, or you receive a different spirit which you have not received, or a different gospel which you have not accepted, this you tolerate very well!"
Another very tricky verse. I don't think a Marcionite would talk about the serpent tricking Eve.
Here is an important clue, Philippians 2:
"9 For this reason also God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name, 10
so that at the name of Jesus every knee will bow, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and that
every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."
This is a reference to Isaiah 45:
21 Declare and present your case;
Indeed, let them consult together.
Who has announced this long ago?
Who has long since declared it?
Is it not I, the Lord [YHWH]?
And there is no other god besides Me,
A righteous god and a Savior;
There is none except Me.
22 Turn to Me and be saved, all the ends of the earth;
For I am God, and there is no other.
23 I have sworn by Myself;
The word has gone out from My mouth in righteousness
And will not turn back,
That to Me every knee will bow, every tongue will swear allegiance.
24 They will say of Me, ‘Only in the Lord [YHWH] are righteousness and strength.’
People will come to Him,
Isaiah 45 says that at the name of
Yahweh every knee will bow. Is this not a clear indication that the writer views YHWH as the name of the Lord? Is it not clear that the original writer intended YHWH here?
But overall, throughout most of the Pauline letters, if you remove the name Jesus you are left in most passages with a reference to either
the Lord" or "Christ" or "Christ the Lord". In about 95% of these cases, if you read the passage with simply "the Lord" it appears to be referring to the Lord of the Jewish scriptures, not some recent figure.