So, realistically, if we take a passage like:
1 Cor:
1 Paul, called to be an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God, and our brother Sosthenes,
2 To the church of God in Corinth, to those sanctified in Christ Jesus and called to be his holy people, together with all those everywhere who call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ—their Lord and ours:
3 Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
Is there a reasonable way to get from the passage above to a passage in which the name "Jesus" was not actually present originally? Something like:
1 Cor:
1 Paul, called to be an apostle of Christ the Man by the will of God, and our brother Sosthenes,
2 To the church of God in Corinth, to those sanctified in Christ the Man and called to be his holy people, together with all those everywhere who call on the name of our Lord Yahweh the Man Christ—their Lord and ours:
3 Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Yahweh the Man Christ.
This obviously looks kind of ridiculous, but you get the point of where I'm going with it.
Unfortunately for me, I just don't know enough about these languages to really understand the details of these issues.
I guess a main question I have is simply: If someone wanted to actually write out the name Yahweh in Greek, how would they write it? Of course it was never written in the LXX.
If someone wanted to say something like "the angel of Yahweh" in Greek, how would it be written? If someone were writing "Yahweh the Man" how would they write it in Greek?
Paul makes mention multiple times of calling on "the name of the Lord". But he did in fact have a name. Jews were forbidden from saying his name. Paul disagreed with multiple points of Jewish doctrine, including circumcision, that Gentile converts needed to follow Jewish law, and apparently multiple other points of doctrine. It would seem to me that Paul disagreed with the prohibition against using the name of the Lord, and in fact was proscribing the use of the Lord's name.
This problem is compounded by the fact that we don't actually fully know the real name of the Lord. We know YHWH, and presume this was Yahweh, but that's only conjecture.
It seems to me that Paul was not claiming that "some person" was "the Lord", rather he was simply using the name associated with the Lord of the Jewish scriptures. And somehow, the name that Paul used for YHWH got misinterpreted as "Jesus".