πίστις Χριστοῦ (faith of Christ) survey question
Posted: Fri Sep 16, 2022 11:08 am
Survey question: Which side of the πίστις Χριστοῦ (faith of Christ) debate are you on?
Click here to take a poll (and/or comment below):
https://take.quiz-maker.com/poll4476192xdBB0D3b6-140
At the grammatical level, the essence of the problem is whether the phrase πίστις Χριστοῦ is:
1. subjective, referring to a personal attribute or action of Christ (“the faith, or faithfulness, of Christ”)
or
2. objective, referring to the profession and orientation of “faith in Christ”, by which an individual can be identified as ‘saved’
There are eight occurrences of the phrase in Paul’s “genuine” epistles:
διὰ πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (“through faith[/fulness] in [/of] Jesus Christ”; Rom 3.22);
ἐκ πίστεως Ἰησοῦ (“by faith[/fulness] in [/of] Jesus”; Rom 3.26);
διὰ πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (“through faith[/fulness] in [/of] Jesus Christ”; Gal 2.16a);
ἐκ πίστεως Χριστοῦ (“by faith[/fulness] in [/of] Jesus”; Gal 2.16b);
ἐν πίστει … τοῦ υἱοῦ τοῦ θεοῦ (“by faith[/fulness] in [/of] the Son of God”; Gal 2.20);
ἐκ πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (“by faith[/fulness] in [/of] Jesus Christ”; Gal 3.22);
διὰ τῆς πίστεως Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ (“through faith[/fulness] in [/of] Christ Jesus”; Gal 3.26, only in manuscript P46);
διὰ πίστεως Χριστοῦ (“through faith[/fulness] in [/of] Christ”; Phil 3.9).
also: Eph 3.12; 4.13
https://ntwrong.wordpress.com/2008/12/1 ... -genitive/
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I'm on the subjective genitive side of the debate: πίστις Χριστοῦ refers to Christ's faith or faithfulness.
Which side are you on? Subjective (faith of Christ), or objective (faith in Christ)?
Click here to take a poll (and/or comment below):
https://take.quiz-maker.com/poll4476192xdBB0D3b6-140
At the grammatical level, the essence of the problem is whether the phrase πίστις Χριστοῦ is:
1. subjective, referring to a personal attribute or action of Christ (“the faith, or faithfulness, of Christ”)
or
2. objective, referring to the profession and orientation of “faith in Christ”, by which an individual can be identified as ‘saved’
There are eight occurrences of the phrase in Paul’s “genuine” epistles:
διὰ πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (“through faith[/fulness] in [/of] Jesus Christ”; Rom 3.22);
ἐκ πίστεως Ἰησοῦ (“by faith[/fulness] in [/of] Jesus”; Rom 3.26);
διὰ πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (“through faith[/fulness] in [/of] Jesus Christ”; Gal 2.16a);
ἐκ πίστεως Χριστοῦ (“by faith[/fulness] in [/of] Jesus”; Gal 2.16b);
ἐν πίστει … τοῦ υἱοῦ τοῦ θεοῦ (“by faith[/fulness] in [/of] the Son of God”; Gal 2.20);
ἐκ πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (“by faith[/fulness] in [/of] Jesus Christ”; Gal 3.22);
διὰ τῆς πίστεως Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ (“through faith[/fulness] in [/of] Christ Jesus”; Gal 3.26, only in manuscript P46);
διὰ πίστεως Χριστοῦ (“through faith[/fulness] in [/of] Christ”; Phil 3.9).
also: Eph 3.12; 4.13
https://ntwrong.wordpress.com/2008/12/1 ... -genitive/
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I'm on the subjective genitive side of the debate: πίστις Χριστοῦ refers to Christ's faith or faithfulness.
Which side are you on? Subjective (faith of Christ), or objective (faith in Christ)?