Secret Alias wrote: ↑Fri Oct 28, 2022 6:45 am
I don't understand this argument. You seem to be arguing that the internal contradictions in the text mean something. We have similar contradictions now when OUR WRITERS compose 'historical period pieces.' 'Everyone' seems to accept gay characters, Jews, blacks, women's rights. The characters 'know' that equality, humanity is the right path. The author of Genesis was just projecting the biases of his age in the same way that the writer of the Queen's Gambit made the main character subscribe to gay tolerance, racial tolerance etc. Human beings live in a room full of mirrors. All they can see is themselves and the biases of their age. Nothing new here.
Oh come on. Under the assumption of the DH, the traditions underlying Gen 1-11 would had to have been known to the Jews for centuries, from possibly as early as the 9th century BCE, or according to some, even earlier. So under this model stories about Adam and Noah would have been a part of Semitic culture for hundreds of years. You propose that the Pentateuch was produced in the 5th century BCE I believe. If so, and stories about Adam and Noah had been a part of Semitic culture and known to the Jewish priesthood for hundreds of years, then why aren't there any references to Adam or Noah throughout the Pentateuch, other than just in Gen 1-11?
And if you say, "Well, it wasn't relevant or of interest," then I point to dozens of other later Jewish works that certainly find significant interest in these figures. We know that from the 3rd century on, Noah and Adam featured in many Jewish narratives and stories.
But you really think its reasonable that while explaining the origin and need of laws, when laying out sacrificial protocols, when discussing the uncleanliness of women, that there would have been no occasion at all to refer back to the traditions found in Gen 1-11? Give me a break!
Seriously:
Lev 12 : 1Then the Lord spoke to Moses, saying, 2 “Speak to the sons of Israel, saying:
‘When a woman gives birth and bears a male child, then she shall be unclean for seven days, as in the days of her menstruation she shall be unclean. 3 On the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised. 4 Then she shall remain in the blood of her purification for thirty-three days; she shall not touch any consecrated thing, nor enter the sanctuary until the days of her purification are completed. 5 But if she bears a female child, then she shall be unclean for two weeks, as in her menstruation; and she shall remain in the blood of her purification for sixty-six days.
Really, there was no need at all to tie this back to Eve? I mean come on. With all of the talk about the uncleanliness of women in the Torah, there was not one single occasion to link this uncleanliness to Eve? Unfathomable.