Plato and the Pentateuch

Discussion about the Hebrew Bible, Septuagint, pseudepigrapha, Philo, Josephus, Talmud, Dead Sea Scrolls, archaeology, etc.
Russell Gmirkin
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Re: Plato and the Pentateuch

Post by Russell Gmirkin »

StephenGoranson wrote: Sun Mar 12, 2023 5:42 am I am aware of the terminology. I have written here--more than once--that MT (standardized) is much later than 270s bce. So, yet again, we agree on that point.
But that is not an answer to my question just above. To answer it: no. No, the two "proto" categories that I mentioned do not "exclude any pre-270s versions of a written Torah."

An aside on some definitions--not an accusation, but seeking clarity.
Sometimes "Torah" is used (passive voice, i.e., by some people, sometimes) for a teaching (or law, liturgy, etc.) text that is shorter than "versions" commonly printed today. (And even more broadly when oral torah in the rabbinic usage comes into play.) So when I, to take an example, say Torah existed before 270s, that may refer to what someone else might prefer instead to call proto-Torah, or shorter Torah, Torah-in-the-making, or somewhat different copies, textually, than some text other used as a comparison.
But, again, as we know, variety existed after the 270s, also. The 270s imo is not a watershed. Unlike, possibly--not my area of study, so I may be mistaken--the standardization of, first, Jerome's Latin Vulgate (compared to old Latin translations) and then the further, 1592, revision, official to the RC church. If so, then the RC church had, at least in 1592ff, more centralized authority over its text than anybody had in the 270s--a main difference, admittedly, being the printing press.

The word "versions" is sometimes used for (a) translations, such as Greek, Latin, Syriac, Coptic, Arabic, etc. Other times (b) "versions" is sometimes used in a broader generic sense, including differing Hebrew copies.
I think a more useful terminology is that of Wellhausen, who contrasts Oral Torah from Written Torah. According to Wellhausen, Oral Torah represents a stage in which religious ruling did not derive from a written text, but instead from a direct consultation with a religious expert such as a priest or a temple oracle. You approach the expert with a question, you receive a direct answer. This may arise out of oral traditions within a priestly guild, for instance, but it does not involve written texts.

This same contrast between written and oral law is extremely well documented in classical Greece, where civic laws were written and published, whereas sacred law in the possession of certain guilds of experts (such as the Exegetes) was unwritten, and indeed was known among the Greeks as "unwritten law." These "unwritten" laws were finally written down in I think it was 404 BCE.

Something similar can/must be imagined among the Jews and Samaritans. Wellhausen said there was certainly a time when Jewish law was Oral Torah, and then a later time when it was finally written down. So there was always some form of Torah, that is not in dispute. Let's agree to move past that question, which was in actuality never an issue. The key question at any point in time is whether it was written or oral. Did the codification of the Jewish law codes in written form take place in 612 BCE? 458 BCE? 270 BCE? And to what degree did this final Written Torah reflect earlier Oral Torah, and to what degree did it contain innovations, and why?

The Elephantine papyri are clearly highly relevant as contemporary evidence from the period ca. 450-400 BCE. There is not the slightest hint of written laws. There is direct consultation of Jewish and Samaritan religious authorities. There are letters that convey official effectively oral responses on religious issues, such as the so-called Passover letter, which contains direct personal instructions regarding the observation of Sukkoth. It's technically written, but that is only/primarily because of the geographical distances involved. The essential point is that it does not cite an authoritative written text, and so is clearly operating within the oral rather than written paradigm. So it seems to me (and others) that the Elephantine papyri provide clear evidence that there was still Oral Torah as late as ca. 400 BCE, and that the practices current at that time were largely inconsistent with the later Written Torah we now possess.
StephenGoranson
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Re: Plato and the Pentateuch

Post by StephenGoranson »

Oral and written Torah can co-exist, and did, and does. (Why not even acknowledge what I said we agree on?)
I do not accept your analysis of Elephantine, nor the proposed parallel with the Greek maybe-404 bce.
Even were one (subjunctive) to do so, c.400 is before 273.
And, still, REG, you use the term that is in this context bogus, "final Written Torah."

To quote in another context one of my Brandeis teachers: "Good mind set to the wrong task."
ABuddhist
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Re: Plato and the Pentateuch

Post by ABuddhist »

StephenGoranson wrote: Sun Mar 12, 2023 12:41 pm I do not accept your analysis of Elephantine, nor the parallel with the Greek maybe-404 bce.
Why not?
StephenGoranson wrote: Sun Mar 12, 2023 12:41 pm Even were one (subjunctive) to do so, c.400 is before 273.
Unless I am gravely mistaken, though, the idea that the written Torah was not created until after 400 BCE would have been unthinkable in recent years - and is only acceptable because of the evidence from Elephantine.

If one were to try to argue that the Written Torah was developed after 400 BCE and before 273 BCE, what evidence would one cite?
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neilgodfrey
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Re: Plato and the Pentateuch

Post by neilgodfrey »

Russell Gmirkin wrote: Sat Mar 11, 2023 1:05 pm . . . Tov elsewhere holds that proto-LXX is earlier than proto-MT (Tov 2015: 221, 223 n. 46).

Tov, Emanuel, The Text-Critical Use of the Septuagint in Biblical Research. Jerusalem Biblical Studies 8. Winona Lake, IN: Eisenbrauns, 2015.
For anyone interested in actually following up this reference, it is publicly available at https://archive.org/details/the-text-cr ... h-pdfdrive
Secret Alias
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Re: Plato and the Pentateuch

Post by Secret Alias »

I assume you've read Tov's work to the point you see he doesn't accept a 270 BCE starting point for the Pentateuch. So what is the value of this? Tov discusses the same strands I do and everyone who doesn't wear blinders does. He speaks about "a" Samaritan text being pre-LXX. Of what value is Tov to this theory? I think you have to have spent time in a Christian cult and learn to ignore obvious evidence to the contrary of silly beliefs. Trained to be stupid.
Secret Alias
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Re: Plato and the Pentateuch

Post by Secret Alias »

Is there one person on the earth who accepts the spectrum of pre-LXX texts that Tov does and yet maintains that all these texts were created after or at 270 CE besides the two former (or perhaps present in the case of Gmirkin) cult members who advocate the theory at this forum?
Secret Alias
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Re: Plato and the Pentateuch

Post by Secret Alias »

Let me ask you a question. How many pre-LXX texts do you think scholars like Tov think existed at the time of the TRANSLATION of the LXX? Let me know what your guess is. How many pre-270 BCE texts of the Pentateuch that need explaining by this theory.
ABuddhist
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Re: Plato and the Pentateuch

Post by ABuddhist »

Secret Alias wrote: Mon Mar 13, 2023 10:02 am What "theory" is that? It's an established position. It's even Gmirkin's theory right? It's not like I am saying space aliens did it.
From what I understand, Gmirkin belives that the Samaritans and the Judaeans, working together, created the Pentateuch. Gmirkin belives, contra you, that the Samaritans and the Judaeans were not enemies until at least the late Hellenistic/Early Roman period.
Secret Alias
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Re: Plato and the Pentateuch

Post by Secret Alias »

I never said the Samaritans and Jews were enemies in the early period. The evidence suggests that the Jewish Sadducees were the "bitches" of the Samaritans (to use the modern vernacular). Jewish insurrectionism under the Maccabees was the beginning of Jewish independence and dislike of the Samaritans. This is hardly surprising as the servile inevitably feel resentment toward their superiors. The "brains" of the Israelite family were originally located at Gerizim. The "brawn" in Judea.
Secret Alias
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Re: Plato and the Pentateuch

Post by Secret Alias »

And even under Gmirkin's model the Samaritans had a role in the development of the Pentateuch. You're original comments seemed to express surprise at this despite almost all the locales of Genesis being located in or related to Gerizim ... and no mention of Jerusalem. How is this squared with the supposed "Jewish" origin of the Pentateuch? Is it possible to imagine a "Jewish" document which not only doesn't place Jerusalem at the epicenter of the universe BUT DOESN'T REFERENCE IT AT ALL? It's so silly. Like a proud to be American song that doesn't invoke the flag, soldiers, an eagle, "freedom" or a "they" trying to take all that away from the individual singing the song and other cliches in some way. It's not a Jewish document.

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