Why Does the Pentateuch End With Moses Not Entering the Promised Land?

Discussion about the Hebrew Bible, Septuagint, pseudepigrapha, Philo, Josephus, Talmud, Dead Sea Scrolls, archaeology, etc.
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Secret Alias
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Why Does the Pentateuch End With Moses Not Entering the Promised Land?

Post by Secret Alias »

Some possibilities:

1. the Pentateuch was based on historical fact.

Unlikely. I am inclined to suppose that the author(s) could have written an ending where Moses conquers Canaan but didn't. So why not?

2. Joshua needed to be conqueror

This would suppose that something like the Book of Joshua was already imagined by the author(s). Not sure if that was the case although Joshua seems to be prepared for something, even Moses's albeit inferior replacement (110 years to 120 years).

3. the author(s) themselves lived in a time where the restoration of "Israel" was not yet complete or would likely not be complete in their lifetime or that of their subjects. As such the generation of Moses were made not to see the realization of their dream.

Yes I suppose something like that.
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