“How can you say, ‘We are wise,
and the law of the Lord is with us’?
But behold, the false pen of the scribes
has made it into a lie.
did jeremiah really believe that the torah in his time became a lie?
jeremiah 8:8
Re: jeremiah 8:8
To understand Jeremiah 8:8, it is good to recall that the 'Law of the Lord' is probably not the books of the Torah as we now understand it. In Jeremiah's days, the Torah was probably a collection of oral traditions, and perhaps some written texts as well. The 'modern' Torah only took shape after Jeremiah's days.
Hence, the scribes in Jeremiah 8:8 could not have corrupted the Torah itself; the passage could mean that the scribes wrote texts that went against God's instructions (oral and written).
Furthermore, the Hebrew text of J 8:8 is translated in very different ways. See for example the King James: "How do ye say, We are wise, and the law of the Lord is with us? Lo, certainly in vain made he it; the pen of the scribes is in vain." in this translation (and others), the text s not corrupted at all, just written in vain (i.e. the people don't heed the text). To me, this translation makes more sense.
Hence, the scribes in Jeremiah 8:8 could not have corrupted the Torah itself; the passage could mean that the scribes wrote texts that went against God's instructions (oral and written).
Furthermore, the Hebrew text of J 8:8 is translated in very different ways. See for example the King James: "How do ye say, We are wise, and the law of the Lord is with us? Lo, certainly in vain made he it; the pen of the scribes is in vain." in this translation (and others), the text s not corrupted at all, just written in vain (i.e. the people don't heed the text). To me, this translation makes more sense.