Related posts:
1 Cor 11: "when you come together as a church"
Galatians 1:21-24 : churches of Judea
I'm still trying to figure out what Paul really means when he talks about the "ekklēsia of God" (which is translated "church of God" in most English Bibles, but is better translated as "assembly of God").
The term is really only used in 1 Corinthians, 2 Corinthians and Galatians: https://www.biblegateway.com/quicksearc ... rsion=NASB
I consider 1 Cor 15:9 a post-Marcion interpolation.
Some key passages:
The term ekklēsia of God did exist in the LXX and was used by Philo.
The introduction of Philippians is also interesting:
Notably, he does not refer to the Philippians as an "assembly of God", nor does he use the term for any of the other group he writes to. He only ever calls the Corinthians an "assembly of God". However, in 1 Cor he also says, "nor do the assemblies of God" (1 Cor 11:16). This certainly implies some other body -- apart from the Corinthians.
But, in Gal 1:13, when Paul says, "I used to persecute the assembly of God beyond measure and tried to destroy it," is he referring specifically to the body at Corinth?
Some will argue that Gal 1:13 is an interpolation, along with 1 Cor 15:9, but Gal 1:13 is relevant to the broader message of the entire letter of Galatians IMO. Yet, outside of this statement, I don't think there are any other authentic accounts of Paul's persecution. The accounts in Acts are late fabrications as is 1 Cor 15:9. BeDuhn includes Gal 1:13 in his reconstruction of Marcion. If indeed we believe that Gal 1:13 was in Marcion, then the case for interpolation has a huge mountain to climb IMO.
So assuming that Gal 1:13 is not interpolated, what "assembly of God" is Paul talking about? Is Paul talking about a specific body of worshipers, such as those at Corinth? In the openings of the letters to the Corinthians, what does this mean: "To the church of God which is in Corinth". Does this mean that "THE one and only assembly of God" is in Corinth? Or does this mean "to one of the many assemblies of God -- the one that is in Corinth".
In 1 Cor 11:22 is Paul saying, "do you despise your own assembly here in Corinth?" or is he saying, "do you despise the universal body of Christ worshipers?" Is he referring to a universal "assembly of God" or the local one?
This is complicated by Gal 1:21:
This follows on from Gal 1:13, implying that the "assembly of God" mentioned in 1:13 was not specifically the Corinthian body. But other Jews referred to the Jewish people as a whole, as well as to specific congregations of Jews, as an "assembly of God", so why would Paul say in Gal 1 that he was persecuting the "assembly of God" because of his devout Judaism? At least in Gal 1:22 the distinction is made: "assemblies that are in Christ".
The term "assembly of God" was not a uniquely Christian term. It was a term used and recognized by Jews as referring to the Jewish people and Jewish bodies of worshipers. I think it is very telling, and important, that Paul uses the term "assembly of God" as opposed to "assembly of Christ" or "assembly of the Lord", especially since the term "assembly of the Lord" is used in the LXX. So the term "assembly of God" is intentionally more inclusive than "assembly of the Lord/Christ". This is clarified in Gal 1:22, "the assemblies of Judea that are in Christ".
This seems to imply that when Paul says "assembly of God" he is invoking the broadest possible umbrella, under which assemblies that are "in Christ" may fit. In other words, it implies that Paul recognizes "assemblies of God" that are not in Christ. To me this supports the conclusion of Ralph J. Korner, that Paul's use of the term "assembly of God" was intended as a means of drawing Paul's Gentile converts into the broader Jewish body. In other words, when Paul said, "assembly of God" he was specifically not creating a distinction between traditional Jews and Christ worshipers, he was including Christ worshipers in the larger Jewish tent. This, ironically is the opposite of how Paul's letters are read with the translation of "church".
Many later traditions have worked to give the impression that Paul was separating Christ worshipers from Judaism, but real the opposite is the case. But this again begs the question: what the heck is Gal 1:13 talking about? If "assembly of God" is inclusive, then why possibly would Paul have been persecuting "the assembly of God" on the basis of his devout Judaism?