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Re: Cephas (according to Paul)

Posted: Mon Jul 01, 2024 1:13 am
by PeterC
With great respect, many previous commentators have been missing the point. The person(s) that Paul interacted with in Galatians had an Aramaic title (קיפא), Kaiphas/Kephas, which has no translation into Greek. This was the title of the High Priest Joseph and his family.
Paul wrote in Greek, while claiming to know Aramaic well (probably true) and - because he could - almost invariably translated Aramaic words, rather than quoting in transliterated form. Kephas here didn't meant stone. It was an untranslatable title, which is why very exceptionally Paul just quoted it
An author of Mark (I say an author because the work went through stages) went looking for evidence of his character Simon in Paul's letters because he believed Paul would have interacted with him (very unlikely, I suggest) and believed he had found this in the person of Simon Kephas (subsequently redacted to Kephas).
He made an unfortunate mistake, which derives from the fact that the title and the word for stone appear in transliterated form in the same way in Greek. That's because one Greek letter kappa is used for two different letters qoph and kaph in Aramaic.
He didn't of course invent the word Petros for stone! He just misunderstood and misapplied his source.
There is really no issue at all.
A character Simon, historical or fictional, maybe originally deriving from a real Jewish story, with only the nickname 'outlaw'. And another quite separate and distinct character Simon Kephas/Kaiphas (the vowels mostly have to put in going from Aramaic to Greek), member of a priestly family, with a title.
This understanding is, on the grounds of probability and coherence, by far the best, (very little is near 100% certain in critical analysis, except for the falsity of some non-naturalist assertions).

Re: Cephas (according to Paul)

Posted: Mon Jul 01, 2024 2:45 am
by MrMacSon
PeterC wrote: Mon Jul 01, 2024 1:13 am The person(s) that Paul interacted with in Galatians had an Aramaic title (קיפא), Kaiphas/Kephas, which has no translation into Greek.
The Greek interlinear, has
  1. at Galatians 1:18, Κηφᾶν / Kēphan
  2. at Galatians 2:9 and v.11, Κηφᾶς / Kēphas
  3. at Galatians 2:14, Κηφᾷ / Kēpha
Strongs does say "Word Origin"
  1. "of Aramaic origin," and
  2. "of Chaldean origin", and gives (Chaldean כֵּיפָא, a rock)

    See https://biblehub.com/greek/2786.htm

PeterC wrote: Mon Jul 01, 2024 1:13 am Paul wrote in Greek, while claiming to know Aramaic well (probably true) and - because he could - almost invariably translated Aramaic words, rather than quoting in transliterated form.
  • Where are you getting the "claiming to know Aramaic well" from?

PeterC wrote: Mon Jul 01, 2024 1:13 am Kephas here didn't meant stone.
  • According to Strong's it does (but Strong's may, of course, simply be repeating the 'tradition')
But your point - claim - is that 'Kephas' came from Caiaphas : from [Y]osef Ben Caiaphas


Josef Ben Caiaphas (c. 14 BC – c. 46 AD), known simply as Caiaphas [Hebrew: יוֹסֵף בַּר קַיָּפָא,]* in the New Testament, was the Jewish high priest during the years of Jesus' ministry, according to Josephus ... The primary sources for Caiaphas' life are the New Testament, and the writings of Josephus [Antiquities 18, eg., 18.2.2].

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Caiaphas

* Koinē Greek: Καϊάφας; Romanized: Kaïáphas


That wikipedia article says

Annas, father-in-law of Caiaphas (John 18:13), had been high-priest from AD 6 to 15

  • (there are other reference to Caiaphas in the gospel attributed to John)


    In the Gospel of John (John 11), the high priests call a gathering of the Sanhedrin in reaction to the raising of Lazarus.[7] In the parable related in the Gospel of Luke (Luke 16:28–30), the likely reaction of the "five brothers" to the possibility of the return of the beggar Lazarus has given rise to the suggestion by Claude-Joseph Drioux and others that the "rich man" is itself an attack on Caiaphas, his father-in-law, and his five brothers-in-law.[8]

    Caiaphas considers, with "the Chief Priests and Pharisees", what to do about Jesus, whose influence was spreading. They worry that if they "let him go on like this, everyone will believe in him, and the Romans will come and destroy both our holy place and our nation."

    In the Gospel of John (John 18), Jesus is brought before Annas, whose palace was closer.[9] Annas questioned him regarding his disciples and teaching, and then sent him on to Caiaphas. Caiaphas makes a political calculation, suggesting that it would be better for "one man" (Jesus) to die than for "the whole nation" to be destroyed. Similar ideas can be found in rabbinical discussion in Talmud and Midrash.[10]
    • According to John 11:51-52 it states that "He did not say this of his own accord, but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation, and not for the nation only, but also to gather into one the children of God who are scattered abroad."
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Caiaphas


And


Josephus
The 1st-century Jewish historian Josephus is considered the most reliable extra-biblical literary source for Caiaphas.[12] His works contain information on the dates for Caiaphas' tenure of the high priesthood, along with reports on other high priests, and also help to establish a coherent description of the responsibilities of the high-priestly office. Josephus (Antiquitates Judaicae 18.33–35) relates that Caiaphas became a high priest during a turbulent period. He also states that the Legate of Syria Lucius Vitellius the Elder deposed Caiaphas (Antiquitates Judaicae 18.95–97).[13] Josephus' account is based on an older source, in which incumbents of the high priesthood were listed chronologically.[14]

According to Josephus, Caiaphas was appointed in AD 18 by the Roman prefect Valerius Gratus[2] who preceded Pontius Pilate.

According to John, Caiaphas was the son-in-law of the high priest Annas, who is widely identified with Ananus the son of Seth, mentioned by Josephus.[15] Annas was deposed after the death of Augustus, but had five sons who served as high priest after him. The terms of Annas, Caiaphas, and the five brothers are:
  • Ananus (or Annas) the son of Seth (6–15)
    • Eleazar the son of Ananus (16–17)
    • Caiaphas, properly called Joseph son of Caiaphas (18–36/37), who had married the daughter of Annas (John 18:13)
    • Jonathan the son of Ananus (spring 37)
    • Theophilus ben Ananus (37–41)
    • Matthias ben Ananus (43)
    • Ananus ben Ananus (63)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Caiaphas

12. Bond, Caiaphas, pp. 18–19.
13. Bond, Caiaphas, p. 86.
14. Josephus' source is mentioned in Antiquitates Judaicae 20.224–51 and Against Apion 1.36; see Bond, Caiaphas, p. 163, n. 2.
15. Josephus, Ant., Book 18 Section 26: Bond, Helen Catharine (2004). Caiaphas: Friend of Rome and Judge of Jesus?. Louisville: Westminster John Knox. ISBN 0-664-22332-X.



So, you are saying that the Kephas that Paul was referring to in Galatians & 1 Corinthians is the Caiaphas in Josephus' Antiquities (who seems to also be the same Caiaphas in the Gospel attributed to John (+/- G.Luke)).

Except the name in Paul indicates a quite different character ...

Correct?

Re: Cephas (according to Paul)

Posted: Mon Jul 01, 2024 3:15 am
by MrMacSon
with slight alterations (especially in layout, but also in the commentary: in [...]):
PeterC wrote: Sun Jun 23, 2024 2:57 pm
How did obfuscation over the names 'Cephas' and 'Petros' arise?

* Note that one letter kappa in Greek represents two letters, kaph and qoph in Aramaic.

The name Kephas used in Galatians and I Corinthians may have been originally represented in Aramaic by the letters kaph and peh, followed by a soundless aleph, or by kaph, yodh (as a vowel carrier) and aleph. This is as כפא and כיפא, reading from right to left. There would have been no Aramaic letter in the place occupied by sigma, added in Greek to give the word a masculine case. Both versions mean stone.

Kephas could, however, equally have been represented by the letters qoph, peh and aleph or by qoph, yodh, peh and aleph (קפא and קיפא).

Originating in this way, from the use of a qoph rather than a kaph, Kephas (or Kaiphas with a different choice of Greek vowels) is the short version of the family title of the Jewish High Priest at the time, known to us through the gospels and the work of Josephus (Antiquities 18 ii.2, iv.3) as Joseph Caiaphas. The alternative representations of this version (קפא and קיפא) are found in names scratched on the sides of ossuaries, in what is likely to have been the family tomb of the High Priest Joseph.

There are therefore two possibilities for the origin of the name Kephas (in Greek) in Paul’s letters. One is that there was someone (of some significance) called ‘stone’ and the other is that there were one or more persons designated with the title קפא or קיפא, that is the title of the High Priest Joseph’s family, with whom Paul was interacting.

Kephas could have been a title, rather than a nickname meaning stone. As such, as the title of Joseph’s family, it would mean that that Paul was dealing with a person (or persons) of some consequence.

This realisation opens the way to understanding how two distinctive characters, described with differing roles and attributes, came to have improbably coincident names, in the languages that were in use at the time. Paul is described in Galatians and I Corinthians as interacting with someone who could have been a member of the High Priest Joseph’s family. This member, or these members, carried the family title קפא or קיפא which transliterates equally well as Kephas/Cephas (Κηϕας), or as Kaiphas/Caiphas (Καιϕας),1 but which has no literal equivalent.

1 'Καϊάφας,' but hardly likely to be an issue

Paul would certainly have been aware of Joseph Caiaphas, who had...served as High Priest and who had been in office for an unusually long time. There is also a strong chance that other members of the family existed and were among Paul’s contemporaries. If so, Paul would have known who they were and would likely have interacted with them. He certainly did have a predilection for moving in high circles.

This understanding of the situation is consistent with the way the languages in use at the time interacted and were interpreted. It is more plausible than a projected association between Paul and an individual whose nickname, presumed as meaning ‘stone’, is incongruous, unexplained and largely unreported



The Simon recorded in Mark as part of the group that went to Jerusalem to challenge the Roman and Jewish authorities, could not realistically have been a member of the High Priest’s family. So, this Simon would not have held the family title.

But it is plausible that there were other influential members of the family, playing a part in Jewish life in Jerusalem, besides the former High Priest 'Joseph.' The way Aramaic was reproduced in Greek provides strong testimony that the Kephas who interacted with Paul was one of them.

Identifying Kephas in this way, on the basis of language, provides an important step forward.

But it does only address one half of the issue. What now has to be explained is how someone, called Simon in the gospels, could have been attributed a nickname (meaning stone) that just happened to transliterate into Greek in the same way as the title of members of the High Priest’s family. This is not likely and, I suggest, not the case, given that a better explanation is available.

It is known that the author of Mark used Paul’s letters as a source of material for his gospel. He would have been particularly interested in finding references in these letters to characters associated with Jesus. He would indeed have expected that Paul, as an early founder of Christianity, would have sought out and worked with any surviving followers of Jesus.

Central among these in Mark’s narrative is Simon, who played a key part in the confrontation with the Roman and Jewish authorities in Jerusalem. There are however no direct references to anyone called Simon in Paul’s letters.

What Mark did was find was a number of references which provide a [name that may have been considered to be a] title, Kephas (Κηϕας), while missing (at least, as the text of the letters now appears) a forename. The title itself clearly has Aramaic origins.

The early gospel writer could well have been hampered in deciding what these origins were. In none of several references in Mark, is the Jewish High Priest mentioned by name. This suggests that the author was unaware who at the time this should have been.

[An author of Mark or other] gospel writers [may well have been] able to identify the High Priest as Joseph, called Caiaphas by Josephus and represented in Aramaic by either by קיפא or קפא.

[An] author of Mark decided that Kephas must have been transliterated from כפא meaning ‘stone’, failing to recognise that it could equally have come from the similar-sounding קפא, representing the title of the High Priest.

He also decided that the references to Kephas provided evidence of what he already believed to be the case, that Paul was involved with the Simon who featured in Mark’s own source narrative.*

Simon, it should be noted, was one of the most common Jewish forenames in use at the time. It is possible that Mark was helped to his conclusion by a direct reference (now no longer available) that he had to a character, possible one of several with the title Kephas, who also had the forename Simon.

Having decided that Kephas meant stone and that this applied to his gospel character, he incorporated this into his text.
In this text, written in Greek, Jesus was given to assign the nickname Petros to Simon.

Mark then did, what Paul did not do, thereafter use Petros for his character Simon, as implicitly a translation of Κηϕας.

The reason that Paul himself did not provide a translation of this word of Aramaic origin, is now no longer puzzling, but clear. There is no translation of the Aramaic word קפא, which could be represented either as Κηϕας or Καιϕας, because it is a title with no known or obvious origin. (Quote from 'Who Was Cephas?' minus footnotes)

* or, a Markan author simply decided to rename the Pauline 'Kephas' as Simon [Peter] and as Simon

Re: Cephas (according to Paul)

Posted: Mon Jul 01, 2024 4:04 am
by Mrvegas
PeterC wrote: Mon Jul 01, 2024 1:13 am With great respect, many previous commentators have been missing the point. The person(s) that Paul interacted with in Galatians had an Aramaic title (קיפא), Kaiphas/Kephas, which has no translation into Greek. This was the title of the High Priest Joseph and his family.
Paul wrote in Greek, while claiming to know Aramaic well (probably true) and - because he could - almost invariably translated Aramaic words, rather than quoting in transliterated form. Kephas here didn't meant stone. It was an untranslatable title, which is why very exceptionally Paul just quoted it
There's a part of me that likes this theory. However, is there anyplace else, anywhere, where Caiaphas has been transliterated as you propose? If you propose a subsequent copyist\forger\interpolator making the error, then how many levels of complexity are being added to make a theory work?

Re: Cephas (according to Paul)

Posted: Mon Jul 01, 2024 4:30 am
by StephenGoranson
As I mentioned before, there is no consensus about cited related-or-not names on ossuaries. Puech added that if--admittedly, big if--ossuaries were used because of a belief in an afterlife, why would they be used by Sadducees, who, reportedly, did not believe in an afterlife? Others worth consulting include Christopher Rollston, e.g., at rollstonepigraphy blog. And James VanderKam, From Joshua to Caiaphas: High Priests After the Exile (Minneapolis: Fortress Press; Assen: Van Gorcum, 2004.)

Re: Cephas (according to Paul)

Posted: Tue Jul 02, 2024 10:45 am
by PeterC
A lot of response to my previous comments.
So, I will give my replies, as I am able to.
Agreed (ref MrMacSon, 01 July) that it is only according to Acts that Paul/Saul is shown to be fluent 'in the Hebrew language' (Acts 21,40 and 22,2) which most probably here refers to Aramaic. Paul's handling of his material and the persons he is shown to be interacting with in his Letters and Acts, does support the idea he was competent in Aramaic as well as Greek.
While Paul himself makes some claims that are debateable (eg in respect of his credentials), I would grant that he could probably as Acts indicates speak in Aramaic.
Paul however writes in Greek and, with only one exception of which I am aware, 'maran atha' (our Lord comes) at the end of I Corinthians, doesn't quote Aramaic words and phases, as happens at several points in Mark.
Paul cites the title or nickname Kephas eight times; in each case the forename, which should have accompanied it, is (now) missing.
If Kephas (Κηϕας, which is represented in Greek as a transliteration), derived from the Aramaic word כיפא (with the yodh as vowel carrier) meaning stone, then it must be wondered why Paul failed to write the word in Greek, ie as Petros, as he does with virtually all of the rest of his material.
My view is that Paul could only write Kephas (Κηϕας) in transliteration because it derives from a title, not a nickname, which doesn't - and more pertiently didn't - have a generally recognised meaning (although several people including Rollston have subsequently offered up their speculations!) That title is the Aramaic word קיפא, with yodh as a mater lectionis, or קפא. Both versions are found carved on ossuaries in the tomb believed with some degree of probability to be that of the High Priest Joseph and members of his family.
It is important to recognise that in Aramaic the words for stone and the title differed in sound and so also in spelling, with alternatively a kaph and a qoph at the beginning (reading from righ to left), but that the Greek language didn't encompass the same subtle differences in sound and so only had the letter kappa to represent the letters kaph and qoph and the sounds these represented, similar but in actuality distinct. Thus, what a Greek speaker read, and then wrote in transliteration for words that were actually different, was the same.
This is why both words came to be represented the same way, with the only difference being in the vowels chosen for the gaps that written Hebrew and Aramaic left to be filled in (hence Κηϕας and Καιϕας). It is why an early author of Mark saw Κηϕας in Galatians and 1 Corinthians, thought it referred to the word for for stone, throught therefore that it was in context a nickname and, since I believe the forenemes that were in Paul's two letters have subsequently been redacted, may well have seen the name as Simon Kephas - and transferred this name as Simon Petros, in his narrative in Greek. This is what I suggest is the best explanation, on the balance of probability. And because it leads to an overall understanding that is coherent, shorn of ragged edges, unexplained details and otherwise weird coincidences
It is also important to recognise that Petros and Simon Petros appear out of the blue in Mark and the other gospels. There is no prior evidence for the name Petros at the time that Paul was writing and in recent Jewish history, prior to this. There was a mistake; it was later recognised, disregarded and covered by redactions because the fictional 'Simon Peter', evolved from a possibly real character Simon, had become too doctrinally important.
More on the other points raised to come.

Re: Cephas (according to Paul)

Posted: Tue Jul 02, 2024 8:42 pm
by MrMacSon
PeterC wrote: Tue Jul 02, 2024 10:45 am
.. it is only according to Acts that Paul/Saul is shown to be fluent 'in the Hebrew language' (Acts 21,40 and 22,2) which most probably here refers to Aramaic. Paul's handling of his material and the persons he is shown to be interacting with in his Letters and Acts, does support the idea he was competent in Aramaic as well as Greek.

While Paul himself makes some claims that are debateable (eg. in respect of his credentials), I would grant that he could probably, as Acts indicates, speak in Aramaic.

Acts [of the Apostles] is a work that seeks to habilitate Paul and others in an orthodox framework.

The Westar Institute's Acts of the Apostles Seminar found:


...3. The author of Acts used the letters of Paul as sources.
...4. Except for the letters of Paul, no other historically reliable source can be identified for Acts.
...5. Acts can no longer be considered an independent source for the life and mission of Paul.
.
...7. Acts constructs its story on the model of epic and related literature.
...8. The author of Acts created names for characters as storytelling devices.
...9. Acts constructs its story to fit ideological goals.
..10. Acts is a primary historical source for second century Christianity

https://www.westarinstitute.org/seminar ... e-apostles



But none of that negates your propositions (which seem reasonable to me)
PeterC wrote: Tue Jul 02, 2024 10:45 am
Paul cites the title or nickname Kephas eight times; in each case the forename, which should have accompanied it, is (now) missing.
If Kephas (Κηϕας, which is represented in Greek as a transliteration), derived from the Aramaic word כיפא (with the yodh as vowel carrier) meaning stone, then it must be wondered why Paul failed to write the word, in Greek, as Petros, as he does with virtually all of the rest of his material.

My view is that Paul could only write Kephas (Κηϕας) in transliteration because it derives from a title, not a nickname, which doesn't - and more pertiently didn't - have a generally recognised meaning (although several people including Rollston have subsequently offered up their speculations!) That title is the Aramaic word קיפא, with yodh as a mater lectionis, or קפא. Both versions are found carved on ossuaries in the tomb believed with some degree of probability to be that of the High Priest Joseph and members of his family.

It is important to recognise that, in Aramaic, the words for stone and the title differed in sound, and so also in spelling, with alternatively a kaph and a qoph at the beginning (reading from right to left), but that the Greek language didn't encompass the same subtle differences in sound, and so only had the letter kappa to represent the letters kaph and qoph and the sounds these represented: similar but in actuality distinct. Thus, what a Greek speaker read, and then wrote in transliteration for words that were actually different, [would appear to be] the same.

This is why both words came to be represented the same way, with the only difference being in the vowels chosen for the gaps that written Hebrew and Aramaic left to be filled in (hence Κηϕας and Καιϕας). It is why an early author of Mark saw Κηϕας in Galatians and 1 Corinthians, thought it referred to the word for stone, thought therefore that it was in context a nickname, and, since I believe the forenames that were in Paul's two letters have subsequently been redacted, [so] may well have [perceived] the name as Simon Kephas and transferred this name as Simon Petros, in his narrative in Greek. This is what I suggest is the best explanation, on the balance of probability. And because it leads to an overall understanding that is coherent, shorn of ragged edges, unexplained details and otherwise weird coincidences.

It is also important to recognise that Petros and Simon Petros appear out of the blue in Mark and the other gospels. There is no prior evidence for the name Petros at the time that Paul was writing and in recent Jewish history, prior to this. There was a mistake; it was later recognised, disregarded and covered by redactions because the fictional 'Simon Peter', [possibly] evolved from a real character Simon, had become too doctrinally important.

More on the other points raised to come.

Re: Cephas (according to Paul)

Posted: Wed Jul 03, 2024 6:36 pm
by Trees of Life
Pillars Identities:

If you have a three pillars setup at the front of a temple in the days of the New Testament, the chief pillar of the three is in the centre.

The Christian sect had the same setup, Peter was the chief pillar, James was on his right and John was on his left — as described by Paul, Gal. 2.9.

To link Peter with James and John outright would be to give opposing forces a target in Peter as the chief Christian sect leader - Christ's deputy, for sect opposition would note in published Christian literature the repetition of Peter, James and John and ascertain that they were sect pillars or leaders.

Hence to make matters obscure to those not 'in the know', Peter is named Cephas, especially in Gal. 2.9.

Re: Cephas (according to Paul)

Posted: Fri Jul 05, 2024 3:03 am
by PeterC
Thanks to Mr MacSon for putting up such a lot of the background references, and also for correcting my literals!

He writes:
The Greek interlinear, has

at Galatians 1:18, Κηφᾶν / Kēphan
at Galatians 2:9 and v.11, Κηφᾶς / Kēphas
at Galatians 2:14, Κηφᾷ / Kēpha

Strongs does say "Word Origin"

"of Aramaic origin," and
"of Chaldean origin", and gives (Chaldean כֵּיפָא, a rock)

See https://biblehub.com/greek/2786.htm
This is all good but it is only half of the picture.
Κηϕας is a Greek transliteration of what could have been the Aramaic for stone, כיפא (with the yodh as vowel carrier) or כפא.
But it could equally have been a transliterastion of the title for members of the High Priest Joseph's family, קיפא, with yodh as the mater lectionis, or קפא. This is because kappa represents both the Aramaic letters kaph and qoph.
The same applies to Καιϕας, likewise a transliteration with the ai diphthong instead of eta filling the Aramaic vowel gap.

Re: Cephas (according to Paul)

Posted: Fri Jul 05, 2024 5:23 am
by PeterC
Again thanks to Mr MacSon for putting up the relevant material, and here I am skipping ahead to his concluding points on Caiaphas:
He writes:
So, you are saying that the Kephas that Paul was referring to in Galatians & 1 Corinthians is the Caiaphas in Josephus' Antiquities (who seems to also be the same Caiaphas in the Gospel attributed to John (+/- G.Luke)).
Except the name in Paul indicates a quite different character ...
Correct?
If we can start from the earliest citation, this is epigraphic, from inscriptions on ossuaries in the tomb which looks very much to be that of the High Priest Joseph and his family. One richly decorated ossuary has two inscriptions, one on the side and one on the back, which say the same with a slight difference in spelling;
יחוסף בך קפא and יחוסף בך קיפא
So, what were the purpose of these inscrptions? The ossuaries were used for the bones of family members. Names were sketched on some, probably to ensure that, for future burials, bones were put in the right box for a particular branch of the family.
Why two inscriptions ? At some point, the ossuary was turned in its niche with its inscribed side to the wall, so that the name for future reference had to be scratched on again.
Why variant names? Some have argued that these represent a short and long version of the title of the High Priest Joseph's title, in the phrases above, 'Joseph son of Kaiphas (or Kephas)' - alternatively, Kaiaphas. As against this, it is the case that yodh can act as a consonant or a vowel in its own right. When the letter comes at the beginning of a word, it is invariably a consonant, When it comes within a word, it is statistically far more likely to be a vowel carrier. In which case, what there is here is exactly same word written twice, with in one instance an indication of a vowel inserted. So, in both cases, just Kaiphas/Kephas.
It is my view that the longer version came about because some early Greek writers made the mistake of representing in transliteration Aramaic קיפא as Kaiaphas, mistaking the vowel-carrying yodh as a consonant. In the competition beween forms in texts, the longer (and effectively false version) became more prevalent.
But surely Josephus writing in Antiquities would have known what was correct? And he wrote Kaiaphas.
The question is, well did he? Our surviving copies of Antiquities come from an estimated 900 years or so from when the work was first written, during which time it was copied and recopied. No issue that scribes would, perhaps without even realising it, have harmonised to the version with which they were familiar.
So, there it is. Caiaphas, another iconic name maybe to go in the bin.
My view is that the title was always Kaiphas/Kephas as transliterated; originally just one version of the title. Who knows now how Aramaic speakers at the time pronounced this duosyllabic word.
OK, it is very unlikely that Paul was dealing with Joseph (old, by the standards of the time when he was removed from office and probably dead 15 -20 years later).
So, the person with whom Paul/Saul was engaging in Galatians would have been a family member in the patrilineal line, with the title and with a personal name too that has since been eliminated (redacted). I should say, 'or persons'. Likely, sons or nephews of Joseph Kaiphas.
And yes, different persons in their own right to the Jewish High Priest, perhaps now with different allegiances and aspirations.
Incidentally, I feel in awe that we have in this epigraphic evidence, albeit brief, text that was written around CE 40 and has remained unaltered for approaching 2000 years. What would it be like to find the pesher on which the author of Mark relied for his passion narrative, stuffed in a pottery jar? What would it say?