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Why was the Galilee introduced in the Gospels and by who?

Posted: Fri Sep 27, 2024 8:36 am
by Giuseppe
All we know the midrashic references ("light in the darkness", etc) hence I don't quote them again (nor I want that a reader quotes them again).

Yet we see that in the Gospel of Peter there is no mention at all of 'Galilee'. This fact is the strongest evidence of the extreme antiquity of the its source.

Because it reveals that the Gospel of Peter or the its source had a precise goal in mind: the centrality of Jerusalem and only of Jerusalem. No ministry in Galilee.

Which therefore was added by the Marcionites. This explains why in *Ev the portions where there is more Marcionite tenor are just the episodes placed in Galilee. The meaning is clear: the Marcionite emphasis is on any place that is not Jerusalem.

By adding the Galilee, the gospel started its first steps in the Diaspora of the gentiles, just as Marcion would have always wanted.

Without the Galilee, the centrality of Jerusalem is enormous, extreme at the higher degree.

Corollary: any gospel where 'Galilee' is mentioned comes after *Ev.

Re: Why was the Galilee introduced in the Gospels and by who?

Posted: Fri Sep 27, 2024 8:40 am
by Giuseppe
The authentic partition of the world between "Paul" and "Peter" never happened between Paul and Peter in a meeting in Jerusalem.

It happened in the pages themselves of the gospel.

On the paper.

Re: Why was the Galilee introduced in the Gospels and by who?

Posted: Fri Sep 27, 2024 8:42 am
by Peter Kirby
Giuseppe wrote: Fri Sep 27, 2024 8:36 am Yet we see that in the Gospel of Peter there is no mention at all of 'Galilee'. This fact is the strongest evidence of the extreme antiquity of the its source.
It's missing the beginning.

The last verse plausibly refers to fishing in the sea of Galilee.

"But I, Simon Peter, and my brother Andrew, having taken our nets, went off to the sea. And there was with us Levi of Alphaeus whom the Lord ..."

Re: Why was the Galilee introduced in the Gospels and by who?

Posted: Fri Sep 27, 2024 8:45 am
by Giuseppe
Correct. I should check if Crossan has removed that last verse in the his reconstruction of the Cross Gospel.

Re: Why was the Galilee introduced in the Gospels and by who?

Posted: Fri Sep 27, 2024 8:51 am
by Giuseppe
As I have expected. Crossan places that verse in italics.

The meaning is the following:

The second stratum is the canonical one (in italics). It is taken from the canonical gospels and concerns a burial of Jesus not by enemies but by friends, a presence at his tomb not of enemies (the guards) but of friends (the women), and, finally, an apparition of Jesus not before his enemies but before his friends (as the mutilated manuscript breaks off in mid-account).

(Who Killed Jesus?, p. 266, my bold)

My point still stands.

Re: Why was the Galilee introduced in the Gospels and by who?

Posted: Fri Sep 27, 2024 8:55 am
by Giuseppe
Crossan is guilty of two great macroscopic errors:
  • he placed the gospels in the end of the first century;
  • he never mentioned Marcion.
...and a venial sin:
  • he never mentioned the mythicist Louis Gordon Rylands as his precursor
Even so, he is a great scholar.