The Loeb translation also makes it even more obvious how "Philonic" John 1:1-18 really is.Peter Kirby wrote:Here is the Loeb translation:
But if there be any as yet unfit to be called a Son of God, let him press to take his place under God's First-born, the Word, who holds the eldership among the angels, their ruler as it were.
And many names are his, for he is called, "the Beginning," and the Name of God, and His Word, and the Man after His image, and "he that sees," that is Israel.
καϊ γάρ άρχή και όνομα θεοΰ καϊ λόγος και ό κατ' εικόνα άνθρωπος καϊ ό ορών, Ισραήλ, προσαγορεύεται
So Philo does give the Logos the name "Israel."
1 In the beginning (ἀρχῇ) was the Word (Λόγος), and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. 4 In him was life, and that life was the light of all mankind (ἀνθρώπων).
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14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.
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16 Out of his fullness we have all received grace in place of grace already given. 17 For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. 18 No one has ever seen God (Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε), but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.
John 1:1-18 hits upon the terms ἀρχῇ, Λόγος, ἀνθρώπων, and that he is the one who has seen God. Philo also uses this term the "Son of God."
There's plenty of grist for the mill here -- but one thing not found in Philo is the idea that Philo's Logos is called Jesus.