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Re: Bernard's website: my answer to comments

Posted: Sat Mar 12, 2016 6:16 am
by Ben C. Smith
Bernard Muller wrote:That's rather far-fetched: Jesus is never equated as Elisha in the gospel.
Equated? No. But patterned after? Yes, indeed. Several of the miracles are modeled on miracles attributed to Elisha (the feeding of the 5000, for instance). It is not that John = Elijah and Jesus = Elisha throughout; and it is not that Elijah and Elisha are even the basic model for Jesus overall. Rather, the Elijah/Elisha cycle provided inspiration for a good deal of the early going in the synoptic gospels, and it does not seem farfetched to suppose that one particular scene from that cycle, the succession of Elisha after Elijah, inspired the baptism. 2 Kings 2.9:

When they had crossed [the Jordan], Elijah said to Elisha, "Tell me, what can I do for you before I am taken from you?" "Let me inherit a double portion of your spirit," Elisha replied.

Mark 1.9-10:

At that time Jesus came from Nazareth in Galilee and was baptized by John in the Jordan. Just as Jesus was coming up out of the water, he saw heaven being torn open and the spirit descending on him like a dove.

Then if you can imagine any such thing, anything goes.
That is certainly not true. It is simply a possible consequence of observing all the Elijah/Elisha symbolism in the gospels. Obviously there is a lot more going on here than just Jesus equaling Elijah; but there is a lot more going in throughout the texts, and yet it is still possible in many cases to determine whence the symbolism was derived.

Is it a slam dunk? I say no. Is it farfetched? I also say no.

Ben.

Re: Bernard's website: my answer to comments

Posted: Sat Mar 12, 2016 7:08 am
by Ben C. Smith
Bernard Muller wrote:Then if you can imagine any such thing, anything goes. That's definitively this kind of scholarly speculation that I abhor.
I wanted to comment further on this topic, since it seems to be an important one for interpreting the gospels. There seems to be a rather large element of subjectivity in how persuasive someone is going to find suggestions of the nature we are discussing, in which one scene is thought to have been inspired wholesale by previous literature or whatnot. I know from experience that such suggestions exist which I find extremely — as you would put it, Bernard — farfetched: Richard Carrier's take on Alexander and Rufus springs to mind; and, while Peter Kirby's rival suggestion was an improvement on Carrier's, I myself would still classify it as fairly farfetched. And there are plenty of others. So I understand your reaction, Bernard; but apparently my tolerance for such scenarios is a bit up the scale from where yours is, even if nowhere near where Carrier's must be. And I do agree that the composition of the baptism itself from the Elijah/Elisha cycle is not as secure a suggestion as, say, the invention of some of the healings from those same materials; but no, I do not regard the composition of the baptism from those materials as farfetched.

Perhaps breaking the thought process down into steps might make it seem less so to you. We can start with a statement of yours, as it happens:
Well I put as little weight as you do on the baptism, even if I think there is a good chance Jesus did get the immersion in the water as probably most visitors of John did.
This sort of reasoning may be all that is needed to get the ball rolling. If John was known as a baptizer, and if it has already been established in the tradition (whether historical or not) that Jesus' movement and John's movement were connected somehow and that Jesus even met or spent time with John in person, then it is easy to assume that Jesus was baptized by John, just as you surmise above (if you can do it, then surely the early Christians could have done it). Once the brute "fact" of the baptism is assumed, all that remains is to invest it with meaning: why was Jesus baptized? And here, even without anything specifically taken from the Elijah/Elisha cycle, we can both agree (I hope) that one of the answers given was that the baptism was the event which marked the theophanic beginning of Jesus' ministry as Son of God. To me, the connection to Elisha receiving a double portion of Elijah's spirit is implicitly of a piece with the kind of enthronement material already explicitly present in the pericope, especially if the tradition was already accumulating connections to Elijah and Elisha at the time (IOW, I do not need to suppose that 2 Kings 2.9 was the inspiration for the entire pattern of connection between the gospels and Elijah/Elisha!). The tradent would be thinking, "Ah, the baptism must have been like Elijah handing over the reins to Elisha." Elisha's double portion of the spirit may have inspired Jesus' receipt of the spirit. Josephus never names the Jordan as the venue for John's activity; perhaps even that venue was suggested in the gospels by the site of Elisha's request (of course, the Jordan resonates with all kinds of ancient meaning even on its own merits).

I have no idea whether this gives a bit more body to the suggestion from your point of view or not, but I thought it might be worth a try.

Ben.

Re: Bernard's website: my answer to comments

Posted: Sat Mar 12, 2016 11:38 am
by Bernard Muller
to Ben,
I think, since you believe gospel authors wanted to imitate the genre of Jewish religious narratives, you got deep into parallelomania. For you, if you can find an OT story with some bits of similarity with one of the gospels, that means the gospel author based his story on one of the OT, and therefore nothing in it is likely true.
I read your Vridar article on the feeding of the 5000, and I found it not convincing at all. And "Vridar" used the trick of paraphrasing the two passages side by side rather than quoting them, where the differences would be very obvious.

I have my own take on this story of the feeding of the 5000 in gMark:
http://historical-jesus.info/88.html
I even acknowledge that "Mark" knew about the 2 Kings story (& probably other Elijah-multiplying-food stories) and used some of it. But also "Mark" wrote the disciples did not notice any miraculous feeding, just that they collected leftovers from a crowd eating outside. My overall conclusion (after a thorough analysis): the miraculous feeding did not happen but the collection of leftovers did.

But I think your parallelomania is more acute on this Elisha/Elijah spirit stuff. Actually I do not care much about where "Mark" got his ideas about all that extraordinary or divine items he put in many parts of his narratives. Did he get the "spirit" from 2 Ki 2:9? Does that really matter?
All I can see is that "Mark" used the baptism as the Great Inauguration on earth of Jesus as the Son of God, with a supporting cast of God, the Spirit, then Satan & angels. And the spirit that Elisha asks for is Elijah's spirit, when the Spirit landing on Jesus comes from heaven (with no asking), not John.

I let you with your further speculations.

Cordially, Bernard

Re: Bernard's website: my answer to comments

Posted: Sat Mar 12, 2016 11:56 am
by Ben C. Smith
Bernard Muller wrote:to Ben,
I think, since you believe gospel authors wanted to imitate the genre of Jewish religious narratives, you got deep into parallelomania.
Parallelomania. I had not heard that term in this sort of context for quite some time now. Thank you for the bit of nostalgia. :)
For you, if you can find an OT story with some bits of similarity with one of the gospels, that means the gospel author based his story on one of the OT, and therefore nothing in it is likely true.
I am actually pretty circumspect on such matters; I have, for example, pointed out in the past that OT parallels do not in and of themselves disarm stories like the triumphal entry, since in such cases it could be the participants themselves acting out the OT parallels on purpose (like the so-called "sign prophets" described by Josephus); it does not necessarily have to be the author in cases like this.
I read your Vridar article on the feeding of the 5000, and I found it not convincing at all. And "Vridar" used the trick of paraphrasing the two passages side by side rather than quoting them, where the differences would be very obvious.
I do not much like some of the paraphrasing thing either; nevertheless, for mimesis the differences mean literally nothing. Also, in this case, the parallels in view stand up under closer inspection, as well. I think one has to shut one's eyes pretty hard not to see them. They are pretty obvious.
I even acknowledge that "Mark" knew about the 2 Kings story (& probably other Elijah-multiplying-food stories) and used some of it. But also "Mark" wrote the disciples did not notice any miraculous feeding, just that they collected leftovers from a crowd eating outside. My overall conclusion (after a thorough analysis): the miraculous feeding did not happened but the collection of leftovers did.
Actually I do not care much about where "Mark" got his ideas about all that extraordinary or divine items he put in many parts of his narratives.
Well, I do. I care. I like to explore such intertextual connections. And one never knows when inquiries of this kind will lead to further insight.

Ben.

Re: Bernard's website: my answer to comments

Posted: Sat Mar 12, 2016 2:14 pm
by neilgodfrey
The word parallelomania was first understood (Sandmel) to refer to parallels that were clearly ad hoc and anachronistic. The primary example, if I recall, was the use of fourth century rabbinic writings to interpret Paul's words.

All knowledge comes to us through parallels, or analogies. To reject parallels because they are parallels is to reject the very foundations of our learning processes. To reject the obvious parallels between different ancient Jewish works is as fatuous as if one rejected the parallels between Virgil's and Homer's epics. Literary imitation (parallels) was explicitly said to be a virtue and a practice to be followed. But different rules apply when it comes to Christian and Jewish studies, it seems.

Re: Bernard's website: my answer to comments

Posted: Sat Mar 12, 2016 2:19 pm
by MrMacSon
'Parallelomania' seems to be used to disparage propositions that various Christian texts or practices are similar to texts or practices in non-Christian scenarios.

Re: Bernard's website: my answer to comments

Posted: Sat Mar 12, 2016 2:33 pm
by neilgodfrey
MrMacSon wrote:'Parallelomania' seems to be used to disparage propositions that various Christian texts or practices are similar to texts or practices in non-Christian scenarios.
It has become a scholarly equivalent of a four letter word. It is used to insult, to dismiss, to ostracize, to avoid engagement.

Re: Bernard's website: my answer to comments

Posted: Sat Mar 12, 2016 2:34 pm
by Ben C. Smith
neilgodfrey wrote:The word parallelomania was first understood (Sandmel) to refer to parallels that were clearly ad hoc and anachronistic.
I have certainly seen my share of ad hoc parallels in my time, but to call the links between the feeding of the 5000 and the feeding miracle(s) by Elisha "parallelomania" seems bizarre to me. If those are not meaningful parallels, what would be?

Re: Bernard's website: my answer to comments

Posted: Sat Mar 12, 2016 2:35 pm
by Kapyong
Gday all,

My favourite parallelomaniacism would be from AcharyaS (RIP)
that Jesus the Son of God
is a Sun of God !

Maybe not strictly a parallel, but certainly mania. :)


Kapyong

Re: Bernard's website: my answer to comments

Posted: Sat Mar 12, 2016 2:42 pm
by John2
Ben wrote:

"Rather, the Elijah/Elisha cycle provided inspiration for a good deal of the early going in the synoptic gospels"

Elijah is also cited as an example in the Letter of James 5:17-18:

"Elijah was a human being, even as we are. He prayed earnestly that it would not rain, and it did not rain on the land for three and a half years. Again he prayed, and the heavens gave rain, and the earth produced its crops."