There is a tension between two posts here that puzzles me:
Bernard Muller wrote:I read your Vridar article on the feeding of the 5000, and I found it not convincing at all. And "Vridar" used the trick of paraphrasing the two passages side by side rather than quoting them, where the differences would be very obvious.
I have my own take on this story of the feeding of the 5000 in gMark:
http://historical-jesus.info/88.html
I even acknowledge that "Mark" knew about the 2 Kings story (& probably other Elijah-multiplying-food stories) and used some of it. But also "Mark" wrote the disciples did not notice any miraculous feeding, just that they collected leftovers from a crowd eating outside. My overall conclusion (after a thorough analysis): the miraculous feeding did not happen but the collection of leftovers did.
But I think your parallelomania is more acute on this Elisha/Elijah spirit stuff.
So here, granted that my parallelomania is "more acute" with respect to the baptism, I must still be suffering
some degree of parallelomania with respect to the feeding of the 5000, right? I mean, if that Vridar was not convincing
at all, then clearly I must be picking up on parallels that do not really exist, right?
Yet later you write this:
Bernard Muller wrote:Ben C. Smith wrote:Also, in this case, the parallels in view stand up under closer inspection, as well. I think one has to shut one's eyes pretty hard not to see them. They are pretty obvious.
Actually I agree with that. I wrote in my blog post
http://historical-jesus.info/88.html
>> "Mark" had evidently read:
2 Ki 4:42-44
"A man came from Baal Shalishah, bringing the man of God twenty loaves of barley bread baked from the first ripe grain, along with some heads of new grain. "Give it to the people to eat," Elisha said. "How can I set this before a hundred men?" his servant asked. But Elisha answered, "Give it to the people to eat. For this is what the LORD says: `They will eat and have some left over.' "Then he set it before them, and they ate and had some left over, [no mention the left over were picked up by anyone. They are just proof the men had enough to eat]
according to the word of the LORD." <<
On a previous posting on this thread (
viewtopic.php?f=3&t=2197&start=20#p48977), I wrote:
"I even acknowledge that "Mark" knew about the 2 Kings story (& probably other Elijah-multiplying-food stories) and used some of it."
So here, apparently, the parallels
do hold up to close scrutiny. So which of the parallels were "not convincing at all" originally? Where did paraphrasing them lead Neil Godfrey into error?
Also, I have read and reread your page on the multiplication miracle, and I do not understand your conclusion. You spend time shearing off parts of the story as unrealistic and even "totally absurd", but then I am not sure why you treat what is left the way you do. After doing nothing but getting rid of the implausible parts, you come to the following:
So what happened?
A plausible and logical explanation is as follows:
a) Villagers would meet outside their dirty and cramped villages.
But why?
b) The occasion was probably a festival, like the eight days autumnal one of the tabernacles & its associated feasts. But few Galilean peasants could afford to go to Jerusalem (3-4 days walk away) to celebrate it. Instead, they would go to a near ground outside their village/town.
c) These folks would bring with them more food than they could eat (as for any feast!). However it seems the occasion of the gatherings and the provenance of the food (naturally from the people there!) were never mentioned by the teller(s)!
d) Jesus' disciples picked up the scraps not eaten by the feasters, filling up baskets. And they were telling about it later, probably presenting these collections as a gift from God.
Okay. Plausible and logical or not,
why is this more likely than the alternative(s)? Instead of explaining why, you immediately turn around qualify some of the few elements even of this reconstruction:
a) No confirmation can be found about this practice (i.e. collective villagers' feast in the outdoors). But very little has been written about Judean and Galilean peasants (and more generally about lower class people, in the whole ancient literature). However, Philo of Alexandria wrote that during the festival of the tabernacles:
"the people are commanded to pass the whole period of the feast [festival] under tents [outside their home!] ... They honor God in songs and words ... [the eighth day] a kind of crowning feast, not only as it would seem to this festival, but also to all the feasts of the year ..." (The special laws, II, ch.XXXIII)
b) The five/four thousand men are mentioned at the end of each one of the two "miraculous feeding" stories, consequently appearing to be just addendum from "Mark", not an integral part of the main account. The number of gathered people was probably not estimated by the eyewitness(es).
Point a mitigates your hypothesis that these peasants were gathering for some public feast, and point b shears off yet another part of the story. Nothing so far explaining why your reconstruction should be regarded as probable.
c) The disciples picking up scraps from the meals of others would suggest they were (hungry) poor. And Jesus or disciples helping themselves on available food is not unique:
- The fig tree (Mk 11:12-13)
- Heads of grain (Mk 2:23)
Furthermore, the gathering of this left over food is very much in line with:
Lk 11:9a "So I [Jesus] say to you: ask and it will be given to you; seek and you will find; knock and the door will be opened to you..."
and
Lk 11:3 "[God] Give us each day our daily bread"
Yes, there are parallels, you mad parallelomaniac, to this treatment of food in other parts of the gospel, as well as in parts of related gospels. Still nothing on why your reconstruction should be regarded as probable.
"Mark" had evidently read:
2 Ki 4:42-44 "A man came from Baal Shalishah, bringing the man of God twenty loaves of barley bread baked from the first ripe grain, along with some heads of new grain. "Give it to the people to eat," Elisha said. "How can I set this before a hundred men?" his servant asked. But Elisha answered, "Give it to the people to eat. For this is what the LORD says: `They will eat and have some left over.' "Then he set it before them, and they ate and had some left over, [no mention the left over were picked up by anyone. They are just proof the men had enough to eat] according to the word of the LORD."
However, let's consider the following points:
a) "Mark" put a lot of importance on the fragments (bread, NOT specified from barley, and fish) that were picked up by the basketful (Mk 6:43, 8:8,19-20). This is emphatically acknowledged by the disciples (Mk 6:19-20).
b) In contrast, "Mark" conceded the disciples never "understood" or "saw" the "miraculous feedings" (Mk 6:52, 8:4,17-18). And the reaction by the crowds is non-existent!
c) The gatherings of left over food fit well within the pattern of anecdotal material included (for credibility purpose) by "Mark" in the narration of alleged supernatural events (see for confirmation my next post #89 here and other Markan Jesus' extraordinary miracles here).
d) "Mark" related two different gatherings of left over. Only one would have been enough to "prove" Jesus' food multiplication ability.
Points a, c, and d do nothing to explain why you think your reconstruction is probable; point b, however, looks like it may be trying to be one of those "against the grain" arguments: since the miracle is not explicitly recounted as a visual experience, and since the crowd is not recorded as having reacted, you seem to think that Mark has taken a decidedly nonmiraculous story and spun it into a miracle. But look at 2 Kings 4.42-44 again, which you explicitly acknowledge Mark read and mimicked, at least to some extent. There is no crowd reaction from the 100 there, either; nor is the miracle recounted as a visual experience, with people actually watching one loaf turn into two like stage magic. The two miracles stories
share those elements. So what significance can these elements have? Did the author of 2 Kings take an originally nonmiraculous story, too, and turn it into a miracle, like Mark? Does this mean that the empty tomb narrative probably happened, too, since the resurrection itself is not recounted (unlike in the gospel of Peter), just the results, like the leftover fragments?
You continue immediately:
Therefore, it is highly likely that collections by the basketful of "broken pieces" did occur indeed during two peasants' outdoor feasts. And "Mark" used 2 Ki 4:42-44 "set it before them", as also the custom of Jesus about breaking the bread (as practiced later by "Nazarenes" --Ac 2:42-- and early Christians --1 Cor 10:16, Ac 20:7).
You deem it highly likely that
something happened and Mark turned an ordinary event into a miracle; you must, then, deem it highly
unlikely that
nothing happened and Mark (or some tradent) modeled the entire event after Elisha, including the nonvisual nature of the multiplication. But why? No explanation is given. And I think I know
why you do not bother to explain; in your own words:
I am not the one to propose alternatives....
Your
modus operandi, then, is apparently to read the pericope, cut out the obviously impossible or implausible parts, and then propose a reconstruction out of thin air. There is no need to offer actual evidence for this reconstruction, so long as it does not violate the laws of physics, because there is literally no other option up for consideration, no rival viewpoint to counter point by point on the merits, no competition. Once proposed, your reconstruction becomes the default. My method is a bit different. Hence many of our disagreements, I think.
Ben.